The nurse recognizes that which definitive diagnostic study is performed for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Genetic testing for Philadelphia factor
Urine study for Bence Jones proteins
Lymph node biopsy
Serology for Human T- cell virus (HTLV-1)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Genetic testing for Philadelphia factor: The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic mutation typically associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), not Hodgkin's lymphoma, hence it is not used for its diagnosis.
B. Urine study for Bence Jones proteins: Bence Jones proteins are found in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma, not Hodgkin's lymphoma. This test is not used for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C. Lymph node biopsy: The definitive diagnostic study for Hodgkin's lymphoma is a lymph node biopsy. A sample of lymph node tissue is examined for the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D. Serology for Human T-cell virus (HTLV-1): HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL), not Hodgkin's lymphoma. Serology for HTLV-1 is not used for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Periodontal disease and gum surgery three months ago: Bacteria from the mouth can enter the bloodstream, especially during dental procedures or gum surgery, and potentially infect heart valves, particularly in those with underlying heart conditions.
B. Breast cancer treated with chemotherapy and radiation: While chemotherapy and radiation can compromise the immune system, they are not direct risk factors for infectious endocarditis. The condition is more related to bacterial entry into the bloodstream.
C. Type I diabetic for ten years: Diabetes increases the risk of infections in general due to impaired immune function, but it is not specifically associated with an increased risk for infectious endocarditis.
D. Myocardial infarction one year ago: A MI can cause heart damage, but it is not a direct risk factor for infectious endocarditis. The condition is more commonly associated with valvular disease, congenital heart defects, or the introduction of bacteria into the bloodstream.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. End-stage renal disease: While end-stage renal disease can lead to bone weakness due to mineral imbalances, it does not directly cause fractures in the absence of trauma. This client’s fracture without any trauma is more suggestive of another condition.
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML): CML can cause bone pain but is not typically associated with spontaneous fractures, especially in the absence of trauma. This patient's fracture suggests a bone condition like multiple myeloma rather than leukemia.
C. Rheumatoid arthritis: Rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects joints and is unlikely to cause spontaneous fractures in a healthy bone. The patient’s symptoms of upper arm pain with a fracture point more toward a bone-related condition like multiple myeloma.
D. Multiple myeloma: Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells that often leads to bone lesions and spontaneous fractures, especially in older individuals. The patient’s unexplained humeral fracture and pain without trauma fit the presentation of multiple myeloma.0
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