The nurse reviews the CD4 cell count of a client who is HIV-positive. A result less than which count would indicate to the nurse that the client has AIDS?
1,000 cells/mm3
700 cells/mm3
450 cells/mm3
200 cells/mm3
The Correct Answer is D
A. 1,000 cells/mm3:
A CD4 cell count of 1,000 cells/mm3 is within the normal range for a healthy individual. In HIV-positive individuals, a CD4 count at this level would generally indicate that the immune system is functioning well and has not been significantly compromised by the virus. Therefore, a CD4 count of 1,000 cells/mm3 would not suggest a diagnosis of AIDS.
B. 700 cells/mm3:
Similarly, a CD4 cell count of 700 cells/mm3 is also within the normal range for immune function. While this count may be lower than the typical CD4 count in a healthy individual, it is still considered relatively high and would not indicate immune compromise to the extent seen in AIDS.
C. 450 cells/mm3:
A CD4 cell count of 450 cells/mm3 is also within a range that suggests the immune system is functioning reasonably well. While it may be lower than normal, it is not at a level indicative of severe immune suppression characteristic of AIDS.
D. 200 cells/mm3:
When the CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3, it indicates significant immune suppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This threshold is used to diagnose AIDS in HIV-positive individuals. At this level, the immune system is severely compromised, leaving the individual vulnerable to various infections and diseases associated with AIDS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Alcohol:
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to a range of adverse effects on the fetus, collectively known as fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs). However, the symptoms described in the scenario—tachycardia, hypertension, and evidence suggesting vasoconstriction—are not typical of alcohol use. While alcohol can lead to hypertension in chronic heavy drinkers, it is not commonly associated with tachycardia and vasoconstriction in the same way that stimulant drugs like cocaine are.
B. Heroin:
Heroin is an opioid drug that depresses the central nervous system, leading to effects such as respiratory depression, sedation, and decreased heart rate. While heroin use during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus, including neonatal withdrawal syndrome (neonatal abstinence syndrome), it is not typically associated with tachycardia, hypertension, and vasoconstriction. Therefore, heroin is less likely to be the substance causing the symptoms described in the scenario.
C. Marijuana:
Marijuana use during pregnancy has been associated with various adverse outcomes, including low birth weight and neurodevelopmental issues in children. However, the symptoms described—tachycardia, hypertension, and evidence suggesting vasoconstriction—are not typical of marijuana use. Marijuana is more commonly associated with effects such as relaxation, increased heart rate (tachycardia), and vasodilation (not vasoconstriction). Therefore, marijuana is less likely to be the substance causing the symptoms described in the scenario.
D. Cocaine:
Cocaine is a potent stimulant drug that acts on the central nervous system and cardiovascular system, leading to effects such as tachycardia, hypertension, and vasoconstriction. These symptoms are consistent with acute cocaine intoxication. Cocaine use during pregnancy can have serious adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus, including increased risk of miscarriage, preterm labor, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction. Therefore, given the symptoms described in the scenario, cocaine is the substance that the nurse would question the woman about.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Recurrent pelvic infections:
Pelvic infections, particularly those affecting the fallopian tubes (such as pelvic inflammatory disease), can lead to scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes. Scar tissue can obstruct the normal passage of the fertilized egg, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
B. Heavy, irregular menses:
While irregular menstrual cycles can sometimes be associated with conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), heavy and irregular menses are not typically considered direct risk factors for ectopic pregnancy. However, underlying conditions contributing to irregular menstrual cycles, such as hormonal imbalances or conditions affecting the reproductive organs, could potentially increase the risk.
C. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years:
Oral contraceptives (birth control pills) are known to significantly reduce the risk of ectopic pregnancy. They work by preventing ovulation and altering the uterine lining, making it less likely for a fertilized egg to implant outside the uterus. Therefore, long-term use of oral contraceptives would generally decrease the risk of ectopic pregnancy rather than increase it.
D. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago:
While ovarian cysts are common and usually benign, they typically do not directly contribute to the risk of ectopic pregnancy. However, certain types of ovarian cysts, such as those associated with conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or endometriosis, may indirectly affect fertility and increase the risk of complications during pregnancy, including ectopic pregnancy.
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