The nurse understands that which of the following medications is a potassium channel blocker?
Amiodarone
Digoxin
Verapamil
Carvedilol
The Correct Answer is A
A. Amiodarone: Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic that primarily works by blocking potassium channels, thereby prolonging repolarization and the action potential duration. It is used to manage various atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia.
B. Digoxin: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases myocardial contractility and slows conduction through the AV node. It does not affect potassium channels directly but rather works by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
C. Verapamil: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker (Class IV antiarrhythmic) that slows conduction through the AV node and is used to treat supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and hypertension. It has no significant effect on potassium channels.
D. Carvedilol: Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-blocker with some alpha-blocking effects. It reduces heart rate and blood pressure but does not block potassium channels or have antiarrhythmic properties in that classification.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. ambulate in the hall 3 times daily without shortness of breath: This directly reflects improved tolerance to activity, the central focus of the nursing diagnosis. Being able to ambulate without dyspnea indicates better cardiac output and ventricular function, marking resolution of the identified problem.
B. have an increase in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg during activity: A rise in systolic pressure may occur with exertion, but it does not necessarily indicate improved activity tolerance. In fact, an exaggerated BP response could indicate the heart is working harder than it should to meet the demands, suggesting poor cardiovascular adaptation to exercise.
C. decrease weight from 150 lbs. (68.2 kg.) to 148 lbs. (67.3 kg.) in five days: A slight weight reduction may reflect decreased fluid retention, but this outcome is more relevant to volume status and fluid balance than to resolving activity intolerance specifically.
D. verbalize the signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure by discharge:
While important for client education and self-management, this outcome relates to knowledge rather than physical tolerance to activity. It does not directly measure resolution of activity intolerance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. surgery has caused an episode of supraventricular tachycardia: While stress or surgery can trigger arrhythmias, the ECG shown demonstrates a sinus tachycardia pattern (narrow QRS complexes with identifiable P waves before each QRS), not supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which typically has a very rapid, regular rhythm often without visible P waves.
B. is febrile which is causing the heart rate to be elevated: The client has a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C), which can increase metabolic demand and lead to sinus tachycardia. Fever is a common and expected cause of elevated heart rate, especially when accompanied by infection, such as the client’s post-op wound infection.
C. is in heart failure and the heart rate is elevated to compensate: There is no evidence from the scenario (no dyspnea, crackles, edema, or reduced BP) that supports heart failure. The elevated HR is more directly related to the fever and infection, not cardiac decompensation.
D. probably has a low oxygen saturation causing an increased respiratory rate: The respiratory rate is slightly elevated (22/min), but there is no mention of hypoxia or oxygen saturation levels. Tachycardia secondary to hypoxia would require clinical indicators of respiratory distress or desaturation, which are not demonstrated.
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