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The physician orders a Lidocaine drip to infuse at 2 mg/min. The drug is available as 2 gm in 500 ml of fluid. Solve for ml/hr.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["3"]

Lidocaine infusion calculation:

Lidocaine dose ordered: 2 mg/min
Lidocaine concentration: 2 gm in 500 mL
Conversion factor: 1 mg = 1000 mcg

Calculations:

Convert Lidocaine dose to mcg/min: 2 mg/min × 1000 mcg/mg = 2000 mcg/min
Lidocaine concentration is 2 gm in 500 mL, which equals 4000 mcg/mL.
Calculate mL/hr:
- mL/hr = (2000 mcg/min × 60 min/hr) / 4000 mcg/mL = 3 mL/hr

Answer:

mL/hr: 3 mL/hr

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "Appearing pleased after an aggressive or impulsive act has not been directly linked to intermittent explosive disorder.": This statement is incorrect because individuals with IED may indeed feel a sense of relief or satisfaction following an outburst.

B. "Appearing pleased after an aggressive or impulsive act can be a sense of relief rather than being happy." This response is appropriate because it acknowledges that the satisfaction or pleasure observed is more likely related to relief from tension rather than genuine happiness.

C. "Appearing pleased after an aggressive or impulsive act is a manifestation of lack of empathy or compassion.": While empathy and compassion can be impaired in some cases of mental health disorders, this statement doesn't directly address the observed behavior in IED.

D. "Appearing pleased after an aggressive or impulsive act is within the control of your child.": This statement oversimplifies the complex nature of IED, which involves difficulties in controlling aggressive impulses.

A. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count." B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen." C. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage." D. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count." Incorrect; DIC typically causes thrombocytopenia.

B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen." DIC involves widespread activation of coagulation factors leading to the formation of microthrombi and consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen. Understanding the pathophysiology helps in managing DIC effectively.

C. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage." Heparin is not used in DIC management due to the risk of bleeding.

D. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency." DIC is not genetic and is not caused by vitamin K deficiency.

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The physician orders a Lidocaine drip to infuse at 2 mg/min. The drug is available as 2 gm in 500 ml of fluid. Solve for ml/hr.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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