What does the nurse explain that a ventricular septal defect will allow?
Blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle
Blood to flow from the right ventricle to the left ventricle
Complete mixing of blood in the atria
Blood to flow from the left atrium to the right atrium
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to flow from the left ventricle (higher pressure) to the right ventricle (lower pressure) due to a hole in the septum, causing left-to-right shunting. This is the correct explanation, as it accurately describes the defect’s hemodynamic impact.
Choice B reason: Blood does not flow from the right to the left ventricle in a ventricular septal defect, as left ventricular pressure exceeds right. Shunting is left-to-right, making this incorrect, as it reverses the direction of blood flow caused by the septal defect.
Choice C reason: A ventricular septal defect affects ventricles, not atria, and causes shunting, not complete blood mixing. Atrial mixing occurs in atrial septal defects, making this incorrect, as the nurse should clarify the ventricular location and shunting effect of the defect.
Choice D reason: Blood flow from the left atrium to the right atrium occurs in an atrial septal defect, not a ventricular septal defect, which involves ventricular shunting. This is incorrect, as it misidentifies the defect’s location and hemodynamic consequences in the heart.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stabilizing an existing thrombus is not the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy, which focuses on preventing new clot formation. Thrombolytics dissolve clots, while anticoagulants inhibit clotting factors, making this incorrect, as prevention, not stabilization, is the main therapeutic objective.
Choice B reason: Dilating vessels is not an effect of anticoagulants, which inhibit clotting factors to prevent thrombus formation. Vasodilation is achieved by other drugs like nitrates, making this incorrect, as it does not align with the mechanism or goal of anticoagulant therapy.
Choice C reason: The primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is to prevent thrombus formation by inhibiting clotting factors, reducing the risk of thromboembolism in conditions like atrial fibrillation or DVT. This aligns with the therapeutic purpose, making it the correct goal for the nurse to understand.
Choice D reason: Dissolving existing thrombi is the role of thrombolytic therapy, not anticoagulants, which prevent new clots. Anticoagulants like heparin maintain clot stability but do not lyse clots, making this incorrect, as prevention is the primary focus of anticoagulant therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Laying the infant with the head lower than the body worsens cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot by reducing systemic venous return. The knee-to-chest position increases resistance, improving oxygenation, making this incorrect, as it indicates a need for further teaching on proper positioning.
Choice B reason: Holding the infant against the shoulder with knees bent up toward the chest is the correct knee-to-chest position for tetralogy of Fallot during cyanosis. This increases systemic vascular resistance, reducing right-to-left shunting and improving oxygenation, indicating the father’s understanding of the instructions.
Choice C reason: Placing the infant upright in an infant seat does not effectively increase systemic vascular resistance to reduce shunting in tetralogy of Fallot. The knee-to-chest position is required, making this incorrect, as it shows a need for teaching on the correct positioning to manage cyanosis.
Choice D reason: Supine position with head elevated does not address cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot, as it fails to increase systemic resistance to reduce shunting. Knee-to-chest positioning is needed, making this incorrect, as it indicates misunderstanding of the proper technique to improve oxygenation.
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