What is the best explanation of a pneumothorax?
Blood in your chest cavity
Air in the pleural space
Pus in the pleural space
Collapse of small airways
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Blood in the chest cavity is a hemothorax, not a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air entering the pleural space, disrupting lung expansion, while hemothorax involves blood accumulation, making this an incorrect explanation.
Choice B reason: A pneumothorax is air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse due to disrupted negative pressure. This can result from trauma or spontaneous rupture, leading to respiratory distress, making this the correct explanation of the condition.
Choice C reason: Pus in the pleural space is an empyema, typically from infection, not a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air, not purulent fluid, causing lung collapse, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Collapse of small airways occurs in conditions like bronchiolitis, not pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air in the pleural cavity, not airway obstruction, leading to lung collapse, making this an incorrect explanation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pyuria, urgency, and frequency are typical UTI symptoms, but elderly patients often present with atypical signs like confusion. Confusion is more prominent in this age group, so this is less specific and incorrect.
Choice B reason: Dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain are common UTI symptoms, but elderly patients may show confusion instead of classic signs. Confusion and frequency are more likely, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: In elderly patients (85 years), UTIs often cause confusion due to altered mental status, alongside frequency. Atypical symptoms like confusion are common, making this the correct manifestation for this age group.
Choice D reason: Hematuria and flank pain suggest complicated UTIs or kidney issues, not typical in elderly UTI presentation. Confusion and frequency are more expected, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Inward-pointing feet, or pigeon-toed appearance, describe intoeing, often due to metatarsus adductus or tibial torsion. Genu varum involves the knees angling outward, causing a bowed leg appearance, not foot positioning, making this an incorrect description.
Choice B reason: Genu varum, or bowlegs, is characterized by knees angling outward, creating a bowed appearance of the legs. This condition, common in toddlers or due to conditions like rickets, matches the described deformity, making this the correct description.
Choice C reason: Knees angling inward, causing a knock-kneed appearance, describes genu valgum, not genu varum. These are opposite deformities, with genu varum involving outward knee angulation, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Hyperextension of the knee joint, causing excessive leg straightening, describes genu recurvatum, not genu varum. Genu varum involves lateral knee angulation, not hyperextension, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
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