When performing postural drainage on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?

Obtain arterial blood gases (ABGs) prior to procedure.

Explain that the patient may be placed in five positions.

Perform the drainage immediately after meals.

Instruct the patient to breathe shallow and fast.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

While ABGs can provide valuable information about a patient's respiratory status, they are not routinely required prior to postural drainage in patients with COPD.

ABGs might be considered if the patient is experiencing acute respiratory distress or if there are concerns about their oxygenation or ventilation status.

However, in the absence of such concerns, obtaining ABGs would not be necessary and could potentially cause discomfort or anxiety for the patient.

Choice C rationale:

Performing postural drainage immediately after meals is not recommended for patients with COPD.

This is because eating can cause a feeling of fullness in the stomach, which can make it difficult for the patient to breathe deeply and effectively during the procedure.

Additionally, there is a risk of aspiration if the patient were to vomit during or after postural drainage.

It is generally recommended to perform postural drainage at least 1-2 hours after meals to reduce these risks.

Choice D rationale:

Instructing the patient to breathe shallow and fast is not appropriate for postural drainage.

The goal of postural drainage is to help the patient mobilize and expectorate secretions from the lungs.

This is best achieved by encouraging the patient to breathe deeply and slowly, which helps to open up the airways and promote mucus clearance.

Shallow, rapid breathing can actually make it more difficult to clear secretions and can lead to increased shortness of breath.

Choice B rationale:

Explaining that the patient may be placed in five positions is the most appropriate approach for postural drainage in a patient with COPD.

This is because different positions help to drain different areas of the lungs. The five positions typically used for postural drainage are:

Head down position (to drain the lower lobes)

Prone position (to drain the posterior segments of the lungs)

Right lateral position (to drain the right middle lobe and right lower lobe) Left lateral position (to drain the left lower lobe)

Sitting upright position (to drain the upper lobes)

By placing the patient in these different positions, the nurse can help to ensure that all areas of the lungs are drained effectively.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.

Choice B rationale:

Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.

Choice C rationale:

Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.

Choice D rationale:

Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.

Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:

Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.

CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.

Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored. B. For long-term control of pain and swelling. C. Until the excess pressure is reduced. D. For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Incorrect. Open-angle glaucoma is not characterized by an abnormally small angle.

The angle in open-angle glaucoma is open, but the drainage system is not working properly. Therefore, restoring a smaller angle would not be an effective treatment goal.

Choice B rationale:

Incorrect. Eye drops used to treat open-angle glaucoma are not typically used for pain control.

While some individuals may experience mild discomfort associated with elevated eye pressure, pain is not a common symptom of open-angle glaucoma.

Additionally, eye drops used to treat glaucoma do not have anti-inflammatory properties to address swelling.

Choice C rationale:

Incorrect. While reducing excess eye pressure is an important initial goal of treatment, long-term management of open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing maintenance of normal eye pressure.

Simply reducing pressure temporarily is not sufficient to prevent vision loss.

Choice D rationale:

Correct. The primary goal of treatment for open-angle glaucoma is to maintain normal eye pressure over the long term. This is because elevated eye pressure can damage the optic nerve, leading to vision loss.

Eye drops are often used to lower eye pressure, and they typically need to be used for life to prevent vision loss.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

When performing postural drainage on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of clients who were found to be HIV positive within the last year. Members of the group express an interest in learning about the pathology of AIDS.The nurse should explain that HIV acts in which way to suppress the immune system?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to set up the oxygen administration and apply the simple face mask. What should the nurse do before applying the face mask? Select all that apply.

A client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is given a new prescription for tiotropium via an inhalation device.Which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions for using this medication?

While changing a client’s postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound.Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, which of the client’s laboratory values should the nurse note?

The nurse is admitting a client with possible tuberculosis (TB). The client is placed in a private room with airborne precautions pending diagnostic test results.Which diagnostic test should the nurse review to confirm the diagnosis of TB?

A client with psoriasis returns to the clinic reporting the persistence of several silvery, scaly areas on the elbows and palms that frequently burn and sometimes bleed. Which prescription should the nurse teach the client to use for the skin condition?

A client has been administered lactulose for several days.Which therapeutic response should the nurse expect for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

Exhibits A nurse is reviewing the client’s condition. Based on the exhibits provided, what is the most likely diagnosis for this client?