Which antitumor drug has a dual role of being an antibiotic?

Methotrexate

Antiestrogens

Corticosteroid

Doxorubicin (Doxil)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: Incorrect. Methotrexate is a chemotherapy drug and an immunosuppressant but not an antibiotic. It inhibits the metabolism of folic acid, which is necessary for cell replication, but it does not have antibiotic properties.

Choice B rationale: Incorrect. Antiestrogens are a class of drugs used to treat hormone-sensitive cancers like breast cancer by blocking the effects of estrogen. They are not antibiotics and do not have antimicrobial properties.

Choice C rationale: Incorrect. Corticosteroids are used in cancer treatment primarily to reduce inflammation and manage side effects of chemotherapy, such as nausea and allergic reactions. They have immunosuppressive properties but are not antibiotics.

Choice D rationale: Correct. Doxorubicin (Doxil) is an antitumor drug that also has antibiotic properties. It belongs to the anthracycline class of chemotherapy drugs and works by intercalating DNA, disrupting the replication and transcription processes, leading to cell death. Doxorubicin was originally derived from the bacterium Streptomyces peucetius, which imparts its antibiotic properties.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "O2 @ 2L NC and titrate to keep SPO2 approximately 88-92%"

While oxygen therapy is essential in COPD exacerbation, the specific target range may vary based on the patient's condition and arterial blood gas values. The nurse may need to assess the patient's response and adjust oxygen accordingly.

B. "Prednisone 20 mg PO daily for one year"

Prescribing prednisone at a dose of 20 mg PO daily for one year seems unusual for the treatment of a COPD exacerbation. Steroid therapy is commonly used in exacerbations, but the duration and dose may vary. This prescription may need clarification.

C. "Albuterol nebulizer treatment q 1 hour prn respiratory distress"

This prescription is consistent with the management of an exacerbation of COPD. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator that is commonly used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress in patients with COPD. The "q 1 hour prn respiratory distress" indicates that the medication can be administered every 1 hour as needed for relief of respiratory distress during the exacerbation.

D. "Cromolyn 20 mg inhaled via nebulization QID"

Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer and is not typically a first-line medication for the treatment of COPD exacerbation. This prescription may warrant clarification, especially in the context of an acute exacerbation.

A. Albuterol (Proventil) B. Glucocorticoid (steroid) C. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)

Correct Answer is C,A,B

Explanation

The correct order for administering ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), albuterol (Proventil), and an inhaled glucocorticoid (steroid) to treat chronic bronchitis is:

C. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), albuterol (Proventil), glucocorticoid (steroid)

Here's the rationale for this order:

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent): Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that helps to relax the muscles around the airways, allowing for increased airflow. It is typically recommended to use ipratropium before other bronchodilators to maximize their effectiveness.

Albuterol (Proventil): Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator. It works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, leading to improved airflow. Using it after ipratropium further promotes bronchodilation.

Glucocorticoid (steroid): Inhaled glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory effects and help to reduce airway inflammation. Using the glucocorticoid last allows it to reach the airways and exert its anti-inflammatory effects.

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Which antitumor drug has a dual role of being an antibiotic?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient admitted to the medical-surgical floor has a history of end-stage COPD. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis of “Exacerbation of COPD”. Which prescription would the RN not question as it relates to this patient’s treatment regimen?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is C,A,B

Explanation

Many patients who are undergoing chemotherapy treatment require both invasive and noninvasive tests to be conducted to rule out, or monitor, organ toxicities. Please select which routine tests are considered noninvasive: (Select all that apply)

The oncology RN knows that the most important reason that patients who are undergoing chemotherapy have either intravenous ports, central lines, or peripherally inserted central line is:

Ms. Samuels is scheduled to receive chemotherapy this afternoon at 1400. Her prescribed chemotherapy treatment causes nausea and vomiting as a side effect. How should the RN approach treating this patient for this side effect?

A client is being discharged after receiving IV chemotherapy for cancer. Which statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with COPD who has been prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which statement will the nurse include in the education?

A client has the feeling of having “chest tightness” while experiencing “cold-like” symptoms. Her cough is nonproductive. Her physician prescribed guaifenesin (Mucinex) to help with secretions. When teaching about this medication, what should the nurse instruct? (Select all that apply)

A home care nurse is visiting a client with asthma who suddenly experiences an acute asthma attack. Which drug should the nurse prepare to administer?