Which of the following clinical manifestations would a client with Huntington’s disease exhibit?
Confusion, agitation, and loss of motor abilities
Mental deterioration, mood swings, and excessive movements
Cognitive decline, euphoria, and flaccidity
Emotional disturbances, spasticity, and incontinence
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Confusion and agitation occur in Huntington’s, but “loss of motor abilities” is vague. Excessive movements (chorea) are specific, making this less accurate than the correct choice.
Choice B reason: Huntington’s disease causes mental deterioration, mood swings, and excessive movements (chorea). These are hallmark symptoms reflecting neurological degeneration, making this the correct clinical manifestation set.
Choice C reason: Euphoria and flaccidity are not typical of Huntington’s; depression and chorea are. Cognitive decline occurs, but the other symptoms don’t fit, making this incorrect.
Choice D reason: Spasticity is not a Huntington’s feature; chorea is. Emotional disturbances and incontinence occur, but excessive movements are more specific, making this incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood tests for tumor markers are not primary for brain tumors, as few reliable markers exist. Imaging like CT is standard, making this incorrect for frequent diagnosis.
Choice B reason: A CT scan is the most frequently used test to diagnose brain tumors, providing detailed brain imaging to detect masses. This is standard practice, making it the correct choice.
Choice C reason: Phalen’s test diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome, not brain tumors. It’s unrelated to neurological imaging, making this incorrect for diagnosing suspected brain tumors.
Choice D reason: Burr holes are a surgical intervention, not a diagnostic test. CT scans are non-invasive and primary for tumor detection, making this incorrect for diagnosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Left-sided weakness suggests a possible stroke, requiring urgent evaluation, but a scheduled MRI indicates initial assessment has occurred. The client’s condition appears stable enough for diagnostic planning, suggesting no immediate life-threatening deterioration. This is less urgent than a client with a critically low Glasgow Coma Scale score indicating severe neurological compromise.
Choice B reason: Expressive aphasia in a client with a confirmed cerebrovascular accident indicates a stable neurological deficit post-stroke. While significant, this condition is not immediately life-threatening, and ongoing monitoring is likely in place. The priority is lower than a client with acute, severe neurological impairment indicated by a critically low Glasgow Coma Scale score.
Choice C reason: A concussion patient complaining about frequent wake-ups is likely stable, as routine neurological checks are standard protocol. The complaint reflects discomfort rather than acute deterioration. This is less urgent than a client with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6, which indicates severe neurological compromise requiring immediate assessment.
Choice D reason: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6 indicates severe neurological impairment, likely from traumatic brain injury after a motorcycle accident. This score reflects critical deficits in eye-opening, verbal, and motor responses, signaling potential life-threatening conditions like brain swelling or hemorrhage. Immediate assessment is essential to prevent further deterioration or death, making this the highest priority.
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