Which of the following describes genu varum?
A condition where the feet point inward, causing a pigeon-toed appearance
A condition where the knees are abnormally angled outward, causing the legs to bow
A condition where the knees are abnormally angled inward, causing the legs to appear knock-kneed
A condition where the knee joint hyperextends, causing the legs to straighten too much
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Inward-pointing feet, or pigeon-toed appearance, describe intoeing, often due to metatarsus adductus or tibial torsion. Genu varum involves the knees angling outward, causing a bowed leg appearance, not foot positioning, making this an incorrect description.
Choice B reason: Genu varum, or bowlegs, is characterized by knees angling outward, creating a bowed appearance of the legs. This condition, common in toddlers or due to conditions like rickets, matches the described deformity, making this the correct description.
Choice C reason: Knees angling inward, causing a knock-kneed appearance, describes genu valgum, not genu varum. These are opposite deformities, with genu varum involving outward knee angulation, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Hyperextension of the knee joint, causing excessive leg straightening, describes genu recurvatum, not genu varum. Genu varum involves lateral knee angulation, not hyperextension, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Loss of short-term memory is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease, as seen in the patient’s difficulty recalling recent events. This reflects early hippocampal damage, impairing new memory formation, making it a correct clinical manifestation for this diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Alzheimer’s disease is the most likely diagnosis, given progressive memory loss, word-finding difficulties, and an MMSE score of 20/30 in a 65-year-old. These symptoms align with Alzheimer’s neurodegenerative pattern, making this the correct diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Vascular dementia typically presents with stepwise cognitive decline and focal neurological signs, often with vascular risk factors. The patient’s gradual memory loss without such history better fits Alzheimer’s, making vascular dementia incorrect.
Choice D reason: Word-finding difficulties, as exhibited, are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s, reflecting language cortex involvement. This progressive aphasia, common in early stages, impairs communication, making it a correct clinical manifestation for this patient.
Choice E reason: Disorientation to time and place, though not explicitly stated, is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s, often emerging as memory declines. Given the patient’s MMSE score and symptoms, this is likely, making it a correct manifestation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased glucose use doesn’t occur in DKA; insulin deficiency reduces glucose uptake. Fluid shifts are due to osmotic diuresis, not intravascular to intracellular movement, so this is incorrect for DKA’s mechanism.
Choice B reason: DKA involves metabolic, not respiratory, acidosis from ketones. Protein catabolism occurs, but fatty acid use and ketogenesis are primary, leading to acidosis and diuresis, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Increased glucose and fatty acids contribute, but the mechanism is decreased glucose use causing ketogenesis. This option omits ketogenesis, a key DKA feature, so it’s less precise and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Insulin deficiency in DKA reduces glucose use, leading to fatty acid breakdown, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis (pH 7.2), and osmotic diuresis (electrolyte loss). This fully explains the lab values, making it correct.
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