Which of the following describes genu varum?
A condition where the feet point inward, causing a pigeon-toed appearance
A condition where the knees are abnormally angled outward, causing the legs to bow
A condition where the knees are abnormally angled inward, causing the legs to appear knock-kneed
A condition where the knee joint hyperextends, causing the legs to straighten too much
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Inward-pointing feet, or pigeon-toed appearance, describe intoeing, often due to metatarsus adductus or tibial torsion. Genu varum involves the knees angling outward, causing a bowed leg appearance, not foot positioning, making this an incorrect description.
Choice B reason: Genu varum, or bowlegs, is characterized by knees angling outward, creating a bowed appearance of the legs. This condition, common in toddlers or due to conditions like rickets, matches the described deformity, making this the correct description.
Choice C reason: Knees angling inward, causing a knock-kneed appearance, describes genu valgum, not genu varum. These are opposite deformities, with genu varum involving outward knee angulation, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Hyperextension of the knee joint, causing excessive leg straightening, describes genu recurvatum, not genu varum. Genu varum involves lateral knee angulation, not hyperextension, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Wheezing is associated with lung conditions or left heart failure, not right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema results from venous congestion in right heart failure, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Vasospasms are linked to vascular conditions, not right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema is a hallmark due to fluid backup, so this is incorrect for the manifestation.
Choice C reason: Peripheral edema, swelling in legs or ankles, is a primary manifestation of right-sided heart failure, caused by venous congestion from impaired right heart pumping. This is the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Tingling in extremities is neurological or vascular, not typical of right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema is more characteristic, so this is incorrect for the manifestation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
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