A 20-year-old male is in acute pain with renal colic. What does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
Hyperventilation
Nephrolithiasis
Urinary tract infection
Trauma
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, causing symptoms like dizziness, paresthesia, or tetany due to decreased carbon dioxide levels. It does not cause renal colic, which involves severe, spasmodic flank pain typically from ureteral obstruction. This makes hyperventilation an incorrect cause for the patient’s acute pain presentation.
Choice B reason: Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, is the most likely cause of renal colic in a young male. Stones obstruct the ureter, triggering severe, intermittent flank pain radiating to the groin, often with hematuria or nausea. This matches the described acute pain, making nephrolithiasis the correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
Choice C reason: Urinary tract infections may cause dysuria, frequency, or suprapubic discomfort but rarely produce the severe, colicky flank pain characteristic of renal colic. While infections can coexist with stones, the primary presentation of acute, severe pain points to nephrolithiasis, making this a less likely primary cause.
Choice D reason: Trauma can cause renal pain or hematuria but typically presents with a history of injury and signs like bruising or hemodynamic instability. Renal colic’s hallmark is spontaneous, severe pain without trauma history, making trauma an unlikely cause for this patient’s acute presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased glucose use doesn’t occur in DKA; insulin deficiency reduces glucose uptake. Fluid shifts are due to osmotic diuresis, not intravascular to intracellular movement, so this is incorrect for DKA’s mechanism.
Choice B reason: DKA involves metabolic, not respiratory, acidosis from ketones. Protein catabolism occurs, but fatty acid use and ketogenesis are primary, leading to acidosis and diuresis, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Increased glucose and fatty acids contribute, but the mechanism is decreased glucose use causing ketogenesis. This option omits ketogenesis, a key DKA feature, so it’s less precise and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Insulin deficiency in DKA reduces glucose use, leading to fatty acid breakdown, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis (pH 7.2), and osmotic diuresis (electrolyte loss). This fully explains the lab values, making it correct.
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: DiGeorge disease involves thymic hypoplasia or aplasia, impairing T-cell development. This is a primary cause, leading to immune deficiency, making it a correct choice for the condition’s etiology.
Choice B reason: B-cell maturation is generally preserved in DiGeorge disease, as it primarily affects T-cells due to thymic defects. T-cell issues are central, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Choice C reason: T cells cannot mature in DiGeorge disease due to thymic underdevelopment, causing severe immunodeficiency. This is a core feature of the syndrome, making it a correct choice for the cause.
Choice D reason: Humans lack a bursa; B-cell maturation occurs in bone marrow. DiGeorge affects the thymus and T-cells, not a nonexistent bursa, so this is incorrect for the cause.
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