A 20-year-old male is in acute pain with renal colic. What does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
Hyperventilation
Nephrolithiasis
Urinary tract infection
Trauma
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, causing symptoms like dizziness, paresthesia, or tetany due to decreased carbon dioxide levels. It does not cause renal colic, which involves severe, spasmodic flank pain typically from ureteral obstruction. This makes hyperventilation an incorrect cause for the patient’s acute pain presentation.
Choice B reason: Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, is the most likely cause of renal colic in a young male. Stones obstruct the ureter, triggering severe, intermittent flank pain radiating to the groin, often with hematuria or nausea. This matches the described acute pain, making nephrolithiasis the correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
Choice C reason: Urinary tract infections may cause dysuria, frequency, or suprapubic discomfort but rarely produce the severe, colicky flank pain characteristic of renal colic. While infections can coexist with stones, the primary presentation of acute, severe pain points to nephrolithiasis, making this a less likely primary cause.
Choice D reason: Trauma can cause renal pain or hematuria but typically presents with a history of injury and signs like bruising or hemodynamic instability. Renal colic’s hallmark is spontaneous, severe pain without trauma history, making trauma an unlikely cause for this patient’s acute presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: T cells, including cytotoxic and helper T cells, drive cell-mediated immunity by directly attacking infected cells and coordinating immune responses. They target intracellular pathogens and tumors, forming the core of cellular immunity, making this the correct choice.
Choice B reason: B cells mediate humoral immunity, producing antibodies against extracellular pathogens. While critical for immune defense, they do not directly drive cell-mediated responses, which rely on T-cell activity, making this incorrect for cell-mediated immunity.
Choice C reason: “None of the above” is incorrect, as T cells play a central role in cell-mediated immunity. Their functions, like cytotoxicity and cytokine production, are essential for this immune response, making this an invalid choice.
Choice D reason: “All of the above” is incorrect, as only T cells, not B cells, are primarily responsible for cell-mediated immunity. B cells support humoral immunity, not the cellular response driven by T cells, making this an incorrect choice.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
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