A 20-year-old male is in acute pain with renal colic. What does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
Hyperventilation
Nephrolithiasis
Urinary tract infection
Trauma
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, causing symptoms like dizziness, paresthesia, or tetany due to decreased carbon dioxide levels. It does not cause renal colic, which involves severe, spasmodic flank pain typically from ureteral obstruction. This makes hyperventilation an incorrect cause for the patient’s acute pain presentation.
Choice B reason: Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, is the most likely cause of renal colic in a young male. Stones obstruct the ureter, triggering severe, intermittent flank pain radiating to the groin, often with hematuria or nausea. This matches the described acute pain, making nephrolithiasis the correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
Choice C reason: Urinary tract infections may cause dysuria, frequency, or suprapubic discomfort but rarely produce the severe, colicky flank pain characteristic of renal colic. While infections can coexist with stones, the primary presentation of acute, severe pain points to nephrolithiasis, making this a less likely primary cause.
Choice D reason: Trauma can cause renal pain or hematuria but typically presents with a history of injury and signs like bruising or hemodynamic instability. Renal colic’s hallmark is spontaneous, severe pain without trauma history, making trauma an unlikely cause for this patient’s acute presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Loss of short-term memory is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease, as seen in the patient’s difficulty recalling recent events. This reflects early hippocampal damage, impairing new memory formation, making it a correct clinical manifestation for this diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Alzheimer’s disease is the most likely diagnosis, given progressive memory loss, word-finding difficulties, and an MMSE score of 20/30 in a 65-year-old. These symptoms align with Alzheimer’s neurodegenerative pattern, making this the correct diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Vascular dementia typically presents with stepwise cognitive decline and focal neurological signs, often with vascular risk factors. The patient’s gradual memory loss without such history better fits Alzheimer’s, making vascular dementia incorrect.
Choice D reason: Word-finding difficulties, as exhibited, are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s, reflecting language cortex involvement. This progressive aphasia, common in early stages, impairs communication, making it a correct clinical manifestation for this patient.
Choice E reason: Disorientation to time and place, though not explicitly stated, is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s, often emerging as memory declines. Given the patient’s MMSE score and symptoms, this is likely, making it a correct manifestation.
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