Which of the following best describes the primary characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
Rapid mood swings
Social withdrawal and isolation
Persistent, unwanted thoughts and repetitive behaviors
Hallucinations and delusions
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Rapid mood swings are characteristic of bipolar disorder, not OCD. OCD involves intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors, like Marty’s hand washing, so this is incorrect for OCD’s primary feature.
Choice B reason: Social withdrawal is more typical of depression or schizophrenia, not OCD. Marty’s persistent thoughts and rituals define OCD, making this incorrect for the disorder’s main characteristic.
Choice C reason: OCD is defined by persistent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions), as seen in Marty’s germ fears and hand washing. This is the correct primary characteristic of OCD.
Choice D reason: Hallucinations and delusions are associated with psychotic disorders, not OCD. Marty’s intrusive thoughts and rituals are classic OCD symptoms, so this is incorrect for the primary feature.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Dawn phenomenon involves morning hyperglycemia, not hunger, tachycardia, or confusion. Hypoglycemia from exercise causes these acute symptoms, so this is incorrect for the described episode in Type 1 diabetes.
Choice B reason: Hypoglycemia, often triggered by increased exercise, causes hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion due to low blood sugar. This matches the symptoms, making it the correct cause for the patient’s episode.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia causes thirst, urination, and fatigue, not tachycardia or confusion. Hypoglycemia from exercise aligns with the acute, neuroglycopenic symptoms described, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Choice D reason: Somogyi effect involves rebound hyperglycemia after nocturnal hypoglycemia, not acute symptoms like hunger and confusion. Exercise-induced hypoglycemia fits the immediate presentation, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
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