Which of the following is the priority intervention for preventing a fat embolism in a client experiencing an open femur fracture?

IV antibiotics

Encouraging the patient not to bend at the hip

Early immobilization of the fractured leg

Irrigating the open wound with sterile Normal Saline

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) IV antibiotics: Administering IV antibiotics is important to prevent infection, particularly in open fractures, but it does not directly address the prevention of fat embolism. Fat embolism syndrome occurs when fat droplets are released into the bloodstream, typically from bone marrow after a fracture, and antibiotics have no role in preventing this specific complication. Antibiotics would be more relevant for preventing infection from the open wound, not for managing fat embolism risk.

B) Encouraging the patient not to bend at the hip: While avoiding unnecessary movement or bending at the hip may help prevent further injury, it does not specifically address the prevention of fat embolism. Fat embolism is primarily a concern due to the fracture itself and the subsequent release of fat from the bone marrow into the bloodstream. Restricting hip movement alone is not a preventive strategy for this condition.

C) Early immobilization of the fractured leg: The most effective intervention for preventing fat embolism is early immobilization of the fractured leg. Immobilization stabilizes the bone, preventing the release of fat droplets from the bone marrow into the bloodstream, which is the primary mechanism behind fat embolism. Early stabilization of the fracture helps minimize this risk, making this the priority action in the immediate care of a client with an open femur fracture.

D) Irrigating the open wound with sterile Normal Saline: While wound irrigation is essential for preventing infection and is part of the standard care for an open fracture, it does not directly prevent fat embolism. The risk of fat embolism arises from the fracture itself, and the priority in this case is stabilization of the bone to prevent the release of fat into circulation. Irrigating the wound helps with infection control, but it is not the most critical step for fat embolism prevention.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) "The patient has the virus but the infection is well controlled and not currently transmissible."
An undetectable viral load means that the amount of HIV in the blood is so low that it cannot be detected by standard laboratory tests, typically due to effective antiretroviral therapy. However, the patient still has the HIV virus in their body, and it is essential to continue treatment. An undetectable viral load reduces the risk of transmission, particularly to partners, but it does not eliminate the virus entirely. Hence, the infection is well controlled, but ongoing medication is still necessary to maintain viral suppression.

B) "The syndrome has gone from Stage 3 back to stage 2."
An undetectable viral load does not change the HIV stage. HIV is classified into three stages, with Stage 3 representing AIDS. While effective antiretroviral therapy can prevent the progression to AIDS and help control the viral load, it does not "reverse" the stage of HIV infection. Once a person progresses to Stage 3 (AIDS), they remain in this category even if their viral load becomes undetectable.

C) "The patient can discontinue with antiretroviral therapy until the viral load rises again."
An undetectable viral load indicates successful treatment, but it is crucial for the patient to continue taking antiretroviral medications to maintain viral suppression. Discontinuing therapy increases the risk of viral rebound and drug resistance. Long-term adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for keeping the virus under control.

D) "The patient will be prescribed lower doses of antiretroviral medications for 2 months.". The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to maintain viral suppression indefinitely, not to reduce the dose or discontinue it temporarily. Lowering the dose of antiretroviral medications could result in viral rebound and loss of viral suppression. Therefore, consistent, full-dose therapy is required for optimal HIV management.

A. Strains are associated with fractured bone that are tearing blood vessels B. "A strain should be treated with heat In the first 24 hours then ice after C. A sprain involves stretching or searing or tearing of ligaments at a joint D. A sprain involves tearing of a muscle body or tendon

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Strains are associated with fractured bone that are tearing blood vessels:
Strains refer to injuries of muscles or tendons due to overuse, overstretching, or tearing. A strain does not typically involve fractured bones or tearing blood vessels. Sprains, on the other hand, involve ligaments, not muscles or tendons, and may or may not involve fractures or tearing of blood vessels.

B) "A strain should be treated with heat in the first 24 hours then ice after:
. The general recommendation for the initial treatment of a strain (and sprain) is rest, ice, compression, and elevation (R.I.C.E.) within the first 24-48 hours. Ice should be applied during this period to reduce swelling and inflammation, not heat. Heat may be used after the first 48 hours to promote healing and reduce muscle stiffness, but it should not be used during the acute phase of the injury.

C) A sprain involves stretching or tearing or tearing of ligaments at a joint:
This is the correct statement. A sprain is an injury to a ligament, which is the tissue connecting bones to other bones. It is typically caused by stretching, overextension, or tearing of the ligament, often resulting from a sudden or awkward movement at a joint. Sprains commonly occur at areas such as the ankle, knee, and wrist.

D) A sprain involves tearing of a muscle body or tendon:
. A sprain involves damage to a ligament, not a muscle or tendon. Damage to muscles or tendons is classified as a strain, not a sprain. Strains refer to overuse or tearing of muscle fibers or tendons, not ligaments.

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Which of the following is the priority intervention for preventing a fat embolism in a client experiencing an open femur fracture?

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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