The nurse identifies which of the following as one of the primary nursing interventions for preventing surgical site infection?
Having the patient splint their incision site when coughing and deep breathing
Offering around the clock pain medication the immediate post operative phase
Administering prescribed pre-operative antibiotics within 30-60 minutes of surgery.
Performing the first dressing change on a new surgical site in the post operative setting
The Correct Answer is C
A. Having the patient splint their incision site when coughing and deep breathing:
While splinting the incision site can help alleviate pain and prevent strain on the surgical wound during coughing and deep breathing, it is not a primary intervention for preventing surgical site infection. Infection prevention is more directly related to sterile technique, antibiotic prophylaxis, and maintaining a clean environment around the wound. Splinting can support postoperative recovery, but it does not directly prevent infection.
B. Offering around the clock pain medication in the immediate post-operative phase:
Providing pain medication is important for patient comfort and to facilitate early mobilization after surgery. However, pain management does not directly prevent surgical site infections. The focus for infection prevention lies in maintaining sterility, administering antibiotics as prescribed, and appropriate wound care rather than pain control alone.
C. Administering prescribed pre-operative antibiotics within 30-60 minutes of surgery:
The administration of prophylactic antibiotics before surgery, typically within 30-60 minutes of the incision, is a primary intervention for preventing surgical site infections (SSIs). This timing ensures that the antibiotics are at therapeutic levels in the bloodstream when the surgical procedure begins, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the surgical site. This is a well-established guideline for infection prevention in surgical settings.
D. Performing the first dressing change on a new surgical site in the postoperative setting:
The first dressing change should generally be done by a healthcare professional using sterile technique. However, the timing and handling of the first dressing change are more related to wound care practices rather than a primary strategy for preventing infection. Infection prevention primarily involves proper antibiotic prophylaxis, maintaining a sterile field, and managing the surgical site during the early post-operative period. The first dressing change, while important for wound healing, is not the most immediate or primary intervention for preventing surgical site infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["250"]
Explanation
Given:
Total volume to infuse: 250 mL
Infusion time: 60 minutes
To find:
Infusion rate (mL/hr)
Step 1: Calculate the infusion rate in mL/min
Infusion rate (mL/min) = Total volume / Infusion time
Infusion rate (mL/min) = 250 mL / 60 minutes = 4.17 mL/min
Step 2: Convert mL/min to mL/hr
Infusion rate (mL/hr) = Infusion rate (mL/min) x 60 minutes/hr
Infusion rate (mL/hr) = 4.17 mL/min x 60 minutes/hr = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 250 mL/hr.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) "Western Blot test":
. The Western Blot test is typically used to confirm HIV infection after a positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). This test is not relevant for diagnosing pneumonia, which is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms. The patient's presentation — including dyspnea on exertion, cough with green sputum, fever, fatigue, and bilateral consolidation on the chest X-ray — points to a respiratory infection (likely pneumonia) rather than an HIV-related issue.
B) "Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics":
. The patient's symptoms, including dyspnea, cough with green sputum, fever, fatigue, and bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray, strongly suggest community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) or hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). In either case, broad-spectrum antibiotics are indicated to cover a wide range of potential bacterial pathogens, especially in older adults or those with comorbidities who may be at risk for more severe infections. Immediate treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications such as respiratory failure or sepsis. Once cultures and sensitivities are obtained, the antibiotics may be adjusted based on the specific pathogen.
C) "Initiation of Isoniazid and Rifampin":
. Isoniazid and Rifampin are used to treat tuberculosis (TB), but this patient’s symptoms do not indicate TB. The patient is experiencing acute respiratory symptoms, including fever, cough with sputum production, and consolidation on chest X-ray, which are more indicative of pneumonia than of tuberculosis. Although TB could present similarly, additional testing such as a TB skin test (TST) or sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) would be necessary before initiating antitubercular therapy. The priority intervention here is antibiotic treatment for bacterial pneumonia.
D) "Antiretroviral therapy":
. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used to treat HIV, but there is no indication that this patient has HIV. The symptoms presented — dyspnea, productive cough, fever, and bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray — are more consistent with an acute bacterial infection such as pneumonia rather than an HIV-related complication. ART would only be appropriate if the patient were known to have HIV and developed an opportunistic infection; however, this patient's presentation suggests a primary respiratory infection, not an HIV-related issue.
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