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Which physical assessment(s) would be pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select All that Apply.)

Patient color

Lung sounds

Heart tones

Bowel sounds

Peripheral pulses

Respiratory rate and effort

Pulse oximetry reading

Peak expiratory flow

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C,F,G,H

A.   The patient's color can indicate their oxygenation status. Cyanosis (bluish tint) may suggest hypoxia, which is critical to assess in an asthma patient.
B.   Auscultation of lung sounds is essential in asthma assessment. The presence of wheezing, prolonged expiration, or decreased breath sounds can indicate airway obstruction and the severity of the asthma exacerbation.
C.   Assessing heart tones can provide information about the cardiovascular response to respiratory distress. Increased heart rate may occur due to hypoxia or anxiety associated with asthma attacks.
D.   Bowel sounds are not relevant in the assessment of asthma. While gastrointestinal symptoms may co- occur in some patients, they are not directly related to asthma's respiratory condition.
E.   While peripheral pulses are important in general assessments, they do not provide specific information relevant to asthma management or respiratory status.
F.   Monitoring respiratory rate and effort is crucial in assessing asthma. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles may indicate respiratory distress or an asthma exacerbation.
G.   A pulse oximetry reading provides an objective measure of oxygen saturation. Low oxygen saturation levels indicate inadequate oxygenation, which is critical to monitor in asthma patients.
H.   Measuring peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) helps assess the severity of airway obstruction and monitor asthma control. It can guide treatment decisions and determine if an asthma attack is occurring.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Insomnia is not a common side effect of rifampin. While individual responses to medications can vary, the typical side effects of rifampin do not generally include sleep disturbances. More common side effects include gastrointestinal upset, rash, and liver enzyme changes.
B. The treatment duration for rifampin in the context of active tuberculosis is typically much longer than 1 month. Standard therapy often lasts for at least 6 months and may vary depending on the specific treatment regimen and patient response.
C. Rifampin is generally recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, either 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals, to enhance absorption. Taking it with food may reduce its effectiveness. This information is crucial for ensuring the medication works optimally.
D. One of the notable side effects of rifampin is that it can cause urine, sweat, tears, and other bodily secretions to turn a reddish-orange color. This is harmless but important for the patient to be aware of, as it can cause concern or confusion regarding potential blood in urine or other secretions.

A. Blocks formation of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor B. Blocks the action, not the formation, of angiotensin C. Relaxes the smooth muscle of the blood vessels. D. Decreases blood vessels ability to contract and cause vasoconstriction.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This is the mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers. ACE inhibitors work by preventing the formation of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict.
B. Calcium channel blockers do not directly affect angiotensin.
C. This is the correct mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers. By blocking the influx of calcium ions into smooth muscle cells, these medications cause the blood vessels to relax and dilate, lowering blood pressure.
D. Calcium channel blockers work by relaxing the smooth muscle of the blood vessels, which decreases their ability to contract and cause vasoconstriction.

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Which physical assessment(s) would be pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select All that Apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

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