Which statement describes the action of a beta-adrenergic agent for a patient with a respiratory disorder such as asthma?

Bronchodilation.

Decrease in peak expiratory flow.

Thinner respiratory secretions.

Increase in respiratory rate.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Beta-adrenergic agents (often called bronchodilators) work by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the muscles and dilation of the airways. This helps improve airflow and relieve symptoms of asthma.
B.   A beta-adrenergic agent should ideally increase peak expiratory flow (PEF) by dilating the airways and improving airflow, not decrease it.
C.   This is not a direct action of beta-adrenergic agents. While some medications (like mucolytics or certain expectorants) can thin secretions, beta-adrenergic agents primarily focus on bronchodilation and do not significantly affect the viscosity of respiratory secretions.
D.   While beta-adrenergic agents can sometimes cause mild tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a side effect, they are not intended to increase the respiratory rate directly. The primary goal of these medications is to improve airway patency rather than change the rate of breathing.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for patients with asthma. It can worsen asthma symptoms by blocking beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are important for bronchodilation.
B. Theophylline is a bronchodilator that can be used in asthma management, especially in chronic cases. While it has a narrow therapeutic index and can have side effects, it is not contraindicated in acute exacerbations. However, it’s less commonly used today due to better alternatives.
C. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation during asthma exacerbations. It is a common and appropriate medication for managing acute asthma attacks, so it does not require clarification.
D. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control. It helps reduce inflammation and bronchoconstriction. While it’s not a first-line treatment for acute exacerbations, it is appropriate for ongoing management and doesn’t need clarification.

A. Hypertension B. Acute confusion C. Hematemesis in the morning. D. Dry hacking cough at night

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition in older adults but is not a specific indicator of pneumonia. While blood pressure can fluctuate with illness, it does not directly relate to the diagnosis of pneumonia.
B. Acute confusion is a critical and relevant sign in older adults with pneumonia. This demographic may experience altered mental status due to factors like hypoxia (low oxygen levels), fever, or dehydration. Confusion is often one of the first signs of infection in older patients, making it a significant assessment finding.
C. Hematemesis, which is the vomiting of blood, is not associated with pneumonia. It typically indicates a gastrointestinal issue, such as bleeding from ulcers or varices, rather than respiratory problems. Therefore, this finding would not be relevant to a pneumonia diagnosis.
D. While a cough is indeed a symptom of pneumonia, a dry hacking cough is less typical. Pneumonia generally presents with a productive cough (producing sputum) rather than a dry cough. A dry cough might suggest conditions like bronchitis or asthma.

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Which statement describes the action of a beta-adrenergic agent for a patient with a respiratory disorder such as asthma?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is admitting a client who is having an exacerbation of his asthma. When reviewing the provider's orders, the nurse recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

What nursing assessment finding would be associated with a diagnosis of pneumonia in the older adult?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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