Which presumptive sign (felt by the woman) or probable sign (observed by the examiner) of pregnancy is not matched with another possible cause?
Quickening: Gas, peristalsis
Chadwick sign: Pelvic congestion
Amenorrhea: Stress, endocrine problems
Goodell sign: Cervical polyps
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the pregnant woman, usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. However, quickening can also be confused with gas or peristalsis, which are normal digestive processes that cause sensations in the abdomen.
Choice B reason: Chadwick sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to increased blood flow during pregnancy. It can be observed by the examiner as early as 6 weeks of gestation. However, Chadwick sign can also be caused by pelvic congestion, which is a chronic condition of enlarged and dilated veins in the pelvis².
Choice C reason: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods, which is one of the most common signs of pregnancy. However, amenorrhea can also be caused by stress, endocrine problems, or other factors that affect the hormonal balance and ovulation.
Choice D reason: Goodell sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity and edema during pregnancy. It can be palpated by the examiner around 6 to 8 weeks of gestation. Goodell sign is not associated with any other condition besides pregnancy, unlike cervical polyps, which are benign growths of the cervical tissue that can cause bleeding or discharge.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a donor embryo is not used in IVF-ET. A donor embryo is an embryo that was created from another couple's gametes and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the couple's own gametes to create an embryo.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because it is dismissive and unprofessional. The nurse should respect the husband's curiosity and provide accurate and clear information about the procedure. The nurse should also address any concerns or questions that the couple may have.
Choice C reason: This is correct because it is a concise and accurate description of the IVF-ET procedure. The nurse explains the main steps and the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because donor sperm is not used in IVF-ET. Donor sperm is sperm that was obtained from another man and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the husband's own sperm to fertilize the wife's eggs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The NST has no known contraindications, as it is a non-invasive and safe test that does not stimulate uterine contractions or cause fetal distress. It is the most widely used method of antepartum fetal surveillance.
Choice B reason: The NST is not slightly more expensive than the CST, as it requires less time and equipment. The NST usually takes 20 to 40 minutes, while the CST may take up to 2 hours. The NST only needs a fetal monitor, while the CST also needs an intravenous line and oxytocin infusion.
Choice C reason: The NST does not have fewer false-positive results than the CST, as it has a higher rate of nonreactive results that may indicate fetal compromise when there is none. A nonreactive NST is one that does not show at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period.
Choice D reason: The NST is not more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise than the CST, as it has a lower predictive value for fetal well-being. A reactive NST is one that shows at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period. However, a reactive NST does not rule out the possibility of fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
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