Which statement, made by a client being discharged to home after a radical cystectomy, indicates a need for further clarification by the nurse? "I will:
notify the provider if the urine output is absent."
resume voiding normally within one week."
take a stool softener daily to decrease the chance of straining."
monitor the skin around the surgical site for redness."
The Correct Answer is B
A. After a radical cystectomy, the client may have a urinary diversion (such as a stoma) and should be vigilant about monitoring urine output. Absence of urine output can indicate a serious issue, and notifying the provider is crucial.
B. This statement indicates a need for further clarification. After a radical cystectomy, clients typically do not resume normal voiding because the bladder is removed. Instead, they may have a urinary diversion or need to learn how to manage their new urinary output. Normal voiding as before surgery is not possible, so this statement reflects a misunderstanding of the procedure's implications.
C. After surgery, particularly abdominal surgery like a radical cystectomy, patients are often advised to take stool softeners to prevent constipation. Straining can increase the risk of complications and affect the surgical site, so this is a valid precaution.
D. Monitoring the surgical site for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, or discharge, is an essential part of post-operative care. Clients should be educated on how to check their surgical site for any concerning changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While having multiple sexual partners is associated with an increased risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it is not considered a significant risk factor for uterine cancer specifically. STIs can contribute to other reproductive cancers, such as cervical cancer, but they are not directly linked to the development of uterine cancer.
B. Smoking is a risk factor for various cancers, including cervical and lung cancers, but its association with uterine cancer is not as strong. While some studies suggest a potential link, it is not recognized as a primary risk factor for uterine cancer.
C. Prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen (estrogen not balanced by progesterone) is the primary risk factor for uterine cancer. This can occur in situations such as obesity (where adipose tissue produces estrogen), hormone replacement therapy without progesterone, and certain medical conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
D. Having multiple pregnancies is generally considered to have a protective effect against uterine cancer. Pregnancy reduces the number of menstrual cycles a woman has over her lifetime, which can lead to lower lifetime exposure to estrogen.
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