Which term best describes sickle cell disease?
autosomal recessive disorder
X-linked genetic disorder
autosomal dominant disorder
inherited disorder
The Correct Answer is A
A. Sickle cell disease is classified as an autosomal recessive disorder. This means that a child must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to express the disease. Individuals with one normal and one mutated gene are carriers (sickle cell trait) but do not exhibit symptoms.
B. X-linked genetic disorders are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females, as males have only one X chromosome. Sickle cell disease is not located on the X chromosome; therefore, it is not classified as X-linked.
C. In an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to express the disease. Sickle cell disease does not follow this inheritance pattern; it requires two copies of the mutated gene, which makes this classification inaccurate.
D. While sickle cell disease is indeed an inherited disorder, this term is broad and could apply to many genetic conditions. It describes the general nature of the disease but does not provide the specificity that "autosomal recessive disorder" does.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This statement is the most appropriate for an incident occurrence report. It provides a factual, objective description of what was observed without inferring causes or making assumptions about the patient’s actions. Clear documentation is critical in incident reports for accuracy and potential follow-up.
B. This statement includes assumptions about the patient's motivations and actions. It is speculative and not based on direct observation. Incident reports should avoid subjective interpretations and focus on what can be objectively verified.
C. Although this statement describes a potential scenario, it assumes that the patient was walking to the bathroom and that this was the cause of the fall. Since the nurse did not witness the event, this could be misleading and should be avoided in an incident report.
D. While documenting patient statements can be important, this particular comment is subjective and does not provide an objective account of the incident. It could also lead to potential blame without verifying the accuracy of the statement, which could complicate the report.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Protamine is an antidote for heparin and is used to reverse anticoagulation effects. It is not relevant in the context of administering morphine, which is an opioid analgesic.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is specifically used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression caused by morphine. Having naloxone available is a critical safety measure when administering opioids, as it can quickly counteract the effects if the patient experiences severe sedation or respiratory distress.
C. Neostigmine is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis and to reverse the effects of non- depolarizing neuromuscular blockers. It is not related to the administration of morphine and does not serve as a reversal agent for opioid effects.
D. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine sedation. It is not used for opioid reversal and would not be applicable in the context of morphine administration.
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