You are the PACU nurse that is caring for a client who has been receiving frequent doses of IV Morphine Sulfate, and opioid pain medication, for post-operative pain. Upon reassessment of the patient you find them unarousable with a decreased level of consciousness, snoring respirations at 10 breaths per minute, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. What should be your first intervention?
Administer oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula
Administer Naloxone via IV push
Open the patient's airway with a head tilt.
Place them in the shock position with legs elevated
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administering oxygen is important, but the priority is reversing the opioid-induced respiratory depression with naloxone. Oxygen alone will not address the underlying cause of the decreased level of consciousness.
B. Administering naloxone (Narcan) is the priority intervention because it is an opioid antagonist that will reverse the effects of morphine and other opioids, improving respiratory function and consciousness.
C. Opening the airway is important, but the primary issue here is opioid overdose, which requires naloxone administration for reversal of respiratory depression.
D. Placing the patient in the shock position is not indicated in this scenario. The focus should be on reversing opioid toxicity, not on positioning for shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. 50% Dextrose in Water (D50W) IV push is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL, indicating severe hypoglycemia. The rapid administration of D50W will quickly raise the blood glucose level and help restore consciousness.
B. Insulin Regular IV push would lower the blood glucose level, which is not appropriate in this situation where the client is hypoglycemic.
C. 0.9% sodium chloride infusion is a general fluid replacement solution, but it will not address the client's low blood glucose level.
D. 5% Dextrose continuous IV infusion is typically used for maintenance, but it would not act as quickly as D50W to correct severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While impaired perineal skin integrity is a concern due to frequent diarrhea, it is not the priority because it does not pose an immediate threat to the client’s overall health or survival.
B. Protein-calorie malnutrition is a long-term risk associated with Crohn’s disease but is less critical during an acute exacerbation compared to immediate risks like fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
C. Although pain related to abdominal cramping is a significant concern, addressing pain does not take precedence over life-threatening risks such as dehydration or electrolyte disturbances.
D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the priority because severe diarrhea can rapidly lead to dehydration, hypovolemia, and electrolyte imbalances, which can cause life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or shock.
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