Your patient is a 50-year-old female who was brought into the hospital several days ago and diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following lab results would be expected?

Jaundice

Positive for Kehr's sign

Polycythemia vera

Positive for autoantibodies in the blood, Negative for C-Peptides

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Jaundice is associated with liver problems.
B.   Kehr's sign is associated with irritation of the diaphragm, often due to conditions like splenic rupture.
C.   Polycythemia vera is a blood disorder characterized by an overproduction of red blood cells.
D.   Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that attack the body's own cells. In Type 1 Diabetes, these autoantibodies target the insulin-producing cells. C-peptide is a byproduct of insulin production. Since Type 1 Diabetes involves the destruction of insulin-producing cells, C-peptide levels will be low or absent.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While the patient may experience pain, it is not the immediate priority. The primary concern is the possibility of the opioid effects returning, leading to respiratory depression.
B. Patient education is important, but it should be done after the patient is stable and out of immediate danger.
C. Building rapport is important, but the patient's immediate physiological needs take precedence.
D. Naloxone has a short half-life, meaning its effects can wear off before the opioid does. The patient needs to be closely monitored for signs of returning respiratory depression, which can be fatal.

A. Phantom limb pain B. Neuropathic pain C. Breakthrough pain D. Mixed pain

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Breakthrough pain is defined as a transient exacerbation of underlying persistent pain that occurs on a background of otherwise controlled pain. This is the most accurate description of the patient's experience: a sudden increase in pain despite taking regular opioid medication.
B. Phantom limb pain is pain felt in a limb that is no longer there. This does not apply to the patient's situation.
C. Neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the nerves. While it can be achy, the description of localized pain suggests a different type of pain.
D. Mixed pain is a combination of different types of pain. While possible, breakthrough pain is the most likely and specific diagnosis based on the given information.

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Your patient is a 50-year-old female who was brought into the hospital several days ago and diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following lab results would be expected?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

You have just given your patient 0.4 mg IVP of Naloxone for suspected opioid overdose, and the patient has regained consciousness and is breathing normally. Which of the following is your PRIORITY intervention?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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