Maternal Newborn Exam Nursing 223g
ATI Maternal Newborn Exam Nursing 223g
Total Questions : 47
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. The client expresses that she is upset because, despite planning this pregnancy with her husband, she has been having many doubts and second thoughts about the upcoming changes in her life.
Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While discussing feelings with a trusted family member can be beneficial, it is not the nurse’s place to suggest whom the client should confide in. It’s important to respect the client’s autonomy and privacy.
Choice B rationale
This response dismisses the client’s feelings and may make her feel unheard or misunderstood. It’s crucial to validate the client’s emotions and provide supportive care.
Choice C rationale
This is the correct answer. It’s common for women to experience a range of emotions, including ambivalence, during early pregnancy. Hormonal changes, the impact of pregnancy on identity and lifestyle, and anxiety about parenting can all contribute to these feelings.
Choice D rationale
While professional counseling can be beneficial, suggesting it as an immediate response may imply that the client’s feelings are abnormal or require therapy. It’s more appropriate to normalize the client’s experience, offer support, and provide referrals to mental health professionals if the client expresses an interest or if her distress continues or worsens.
A nurse in a community clinic is counseling a client who received a positive test result for chlamydia.
Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This statement is incorrect. Even if a sexual partner is asymptomatic, they can still carry and transmit the infection. All sexual partners should be informed, tested, and treated if necessary to prevent reinfection.
Choice B rationale
This statement is incorrect. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend abstaining from sexual relations for 7 days after a single-dose antibiotic or until the client completes a 7-day course of antibiotics.
Choice C rationale
This is the correct answer. Chlamydia is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
Choice D rationale
This statement is incorrect. The client should return for chlamydia testing in 3 months.
A nurse in a hospital is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
The client’s vital signs are: blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, and temperature 36.4° C (97.6° F). Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be necessary in some cases, it is not the priority nursing action in this situation.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct answer. Initiating IV access is the priority nursing action. This allows for rapid administration of fluids and medications, which can be crucial in managing the client’s condition.
Choice C rationale
Preparing the abdominal and perineal areas may be necessary if the client requires surgical intervention, but it is not the priority nursing action.
Choice D rationale
Witnessing the signature for informed consent for surgery is important if surgery is needed, but it is not the priority nursing action.
A woman visits the family planning clinic to request a prescription for birth control pills.
Which factor would indicate that an ovulation suppressant would not be the best contraceptive method for her?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Age alone is not a contraindication for the use of ovulation suppressants. Many women safely and effectively use these methods of contraception into their 30s and beyond.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct answer. A family history of thromboembolism can increase the risk of developing blood clots, a potential side effect of hormonal contraceptives like birth control pills.
Choice C rationale
Irregular menstrual cycles can sometimes be regulated by the use of hormonal contraceptives, so this would not necessarily indicate that an ovulation suppressant is not a good choice.
Choice D rationale
An allergy to foreign protein is not typically a contraindication for the use of ovulation suppressants. Birth control Explore
A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a 17-year-old female client who is requesting oral contraceptives.
The client states that she is nervous because she has never had a pelvic examination.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Telling the client to “just relax” may come off as dismissive and may not address the client’s concerns or fears.
Choice B rationale
While this response shows empathy and support, it does not directly address the client’s concerns about the pelvic examination.
Choice C rationale
This response is not entirely accurate. While a pelvic exam can be part of the process when starting birth control, it is not always required.
Choice D rationale
This is the most appropriate response. By asking the client what part of the exam makes her most nervous, the nurse is acknowledging the client’s anxiety and opening up a dialogue to address her specific concerns.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is instructing a client about an amniocentesis, which is scheduled at 15 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rho immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women after amniocentesis to prevent Rh sensitization, not to Rh-positive women.
Choice B rationale
Amniocentesis can be used to determine lung maturity, but this is typically done later in pregnancy, not at 15 weeks.
Choice C rationale
The presence of a fetal heartbeat is not a requirement for amniocentesis.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct answer. Amniocentesis requires the presence of amniotic fluid to obtain a sample for testing.
A nurse is considering contraceptive options for four patients.
Which patient should the nurse identify as having a contraindication for oral contraceptives?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While migraines can sometimes be exacerbated by oral contraceptives, they are not a contraindication.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct answer. Smoking, especially over the age of 35, significantly increases the risk of serious cardiovascular side effects from oral contraceptive use.
Choice C rationale
Benign breast disease is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.
Choice D rationale
A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.
A nurse is completing a health history for a patient who is 6 weeks pregnant.
The patient informs the nurse that she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day.
The nurse should inform the patient that smoking puts her newborn at risk for which of the following complications?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This is the correct answer. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of intrauterine growth restriction, which can lead to low birth weight.
Choice B rationale
While smoking can have many negative health effects, there is no direct link between maternal smoking and hearing loss in the newborn.
Choice C rationale
Maternal smoking is not directly linked to congenital heart defects in the newborn.
Choice D rationale
There is no established link between maternal smoking and the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus in the newborn.
A patient makes an appointment at the prenatal clinic because she believes she might be pregnant.
Which assessment should the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, not a presumptive one. Probable signs are observed by the healthcare provider and are strongly suggestive of pregnancy but could be caused by other conditions.
Choice B rationale
Cervical softening, also known as Goodell’s sign, is a probable sign of pregnancy that occurs around the 6-8th week of gestation. It is observed by the healthcare provider during a physical examination.
Choice C rationale
Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs are those experienced by the woman, such as amenorrhea, fatigue, and increased urination. However, these signs are not definitive proof of pregnancy as they could be caused by other conditions.
Choice D rationale
A violet coloration of the vagina, known as Chadwick’s sign, is a probable sign of pregnancy that occurs around the 4th week of gestation due to increased blood flow. It is observed by the healthcare provider during a physical examination.
A nurse is providing nutritional education to a patient at her first prenatal visit.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prenatal vitamins are often recommended to pregnant individuals to meet their increased nutritional needs, including the need for increased vitamin D567. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium, promoting bone health for both the mother and the baby.
Choice B rationale
Vitamin E requirements do not decline during pregnancy. In fact, the need for all essential vitamins and minerals generally increases during pregnancy to support the growth and development of the fetus.
Choice C rationale
While it is true that calcium intake is important during breastfeeding, this statement does not specifically address the nutritional needs during pregnancy. During pregnancy, adequate calcium intake is crucial for the development of the baby’s bones and teeth.
Choice D rationale
Iron intake does need to increase during pregnancy, but not necessarily double. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen to other cells.
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