Ati n120n122 med surg exam
Ati n120n122 med surg exam
Total Questions : 26
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is preparing to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for a client with severe anemia. The nurse should identify that which of the following interventions will help prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?
Explanation
A. Ensuring the blood is compatible with the client's blood type is critical in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, as incompatible blood transfusions can cause serious, potentially life-threatening reactions.
B. Administering the transfusion rapidly can increase the risk of complications and does not prevent hemolytic reactions; transfusions should be given at a safe rate based on the client's condition.
C. Using a blood warmer is not a standard intervention to prevent hemolytic reactions; it's typically used in specific cases such as massive transfusions or hypothermia, but it does not address compatibility.
D. Administering prophylactic antihistamines is not a recommended practice to prevent hemolytic reactions; it is more relevant for preventing allergic reactions associated with transfusions.
A nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The nurse notes white lesions on the client's tongue. What opportunistic infection is this client experiencing?
Explanation
A. Candidiasis, commonly known as thrush, is characterized by white lesions on the tongue and is a common opportunistic infection in clients with AIDS due to their compromised immune system.
B. Xerostomia refers to dry mouth and does not cause white lesions; it can occur in various conditions but is not an opportunistic infection.
C. Halitosis is bad breath and does not correlate with white lesions on the tongue; it can result from various causes but is not an infection.
D. Gingivitis involves inflammation of the gums and may present with red, swollen gums but does not typically cause white lesions on the tongue.
A nurse is planning care for a client with pernicious anemia. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
Explanation
A. Blood transfusions are not a primary treatment for pernicious anemia; they may be used in severe cases but do not address the underlying cause of the condition, which is vitamin B12 deficiency.
B. Daily hydroxyurea is primarily used to treat certain types of cancer and sickle cell disease, not pernicious anemia.
C. Iron supplements are not effective in treating pernicious anemia, as the condition is due to a deficiency of vitamin B12, not iron.
D. Vitamin B injections are the correct intervention for pernicious anemia because the condition results from an inability to absorb vitamin B12 due to a lack of intrinsic factor, making injections necessary to restore vitamin levels.
A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates an allergic transfusion reaction?
Explanation
A. Distended jugular veins may indicate fluid overload or congestive heart failure, not an allergic reaction.
B. Generalized urticaria, or hives, is a classic sign of an allergic transfusion reaction, presenting as an itchy rash or welts on the skin.
C. Bilateral flank pain is more indicative of a hemolytic reaction, particularly due to kidney involvement, rather than an allergic reaction.
D. A blood pressure of 184/92 mm Hg may suggest hypertension or a reaction, but it is not specific to allergic transfusion reactions, which are characterized by skin symptoms like urticaria.
A nurse is administering a unit of RBC 350 mL over 3 hr to a client who has anemia. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Explanation
Infusion rate (mL/hr) = Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (hr)
In this case:
- Volume to be infused = 350 mL
- Time = 3 hours
Plugging the values into the formula:
- Infusion rate = 350 mL / 3 hours = 116.67 mL/hr
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the infusion rate is 117 mL/hr.
A nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which of the following can be anticipated will be a trigger for a sickle cell crisis?
Explanation
A. Over-hydration is not a trigger for a sickle cell crisis; in fact, adequate hydration helps prevent sickling of the cells.
B. Dehydration is a significant trigger for sickle cell crises, as it can lead to increased blood viscosity and sickling of red blood cells.
C. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are often used to manage pain associated with sickle cell crises, but they do not trigger a crisis.
D. Vaccinations are important for preventing infections in individuals with sickle cell anemia but are not associated with triggering a sickle cell crisis.
A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which manifestation(s) should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. Fungal and bacterial infections can occur later as the immune system becomes compromised, but they are not initial symptoms of HIV infection.
B. Flu-like symptoms and night sweats are common initial manifestations of acute HIV infection, often occurring within 2-4 weeks after exposure.
C. Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer associated with advanced HIV/AIDS and not an initial symptom of infection.
D. Pneumocystis lung infection typically occurs later in the course of HIV disease when the immune system is severely weakened, not during the initial infection stage.
A nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell anemia. The client asks, "Why am I in so much pain?" What is an appropriate response from the nurse to make to this client?
Explanation
A. While deep breathing can help alleviate pain, it is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia; this response could minimize the client's experience.
B. Sickle cell anemia causes red blood cells to become rigid and shaped like a sickle, which can obstruct blood flow and lead to vaso-occlusive crises, resulting in pain.
C. Although sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder, simply stating that the mutated gene causes increased pain is too vague and does not explain the pain mechanism adequately.
D. While anemia can contribute to fatigue and some discomfort, the pain in sickle cell anemia is primarily due to the sickling of red blood cells and subsequent blockage of blood flow, rather than just the lack of hemoglobin.
A nurse is caring for a client with HIV. Which laboratory test would be used to assess the effectiveness of therapy?
Explanation
A. Viral load count is the primary test used to assess the effectiveness of HIV therapy by measuring the amount of HIV RNA in the blood, indicating how well the treatment is controlling the virus.
B. The Western blot is used as a confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis rather than monitoring therapy effectiveness.
C. The Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test is used for initial HIV screening but does not measure viral load or therapy effectiveness.
D. Platelet count can be affected in HIV infection, especially with advanced disease, but it does not directly measure the effectiveness of HIV therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which laboratory value should the nurse alert the provider of?
Explanation
A. A positive Western blot test indicates an HIV diagnosis, which is expected in a client with HIV and does not require urgent intervention.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 180 cells/mm³ is significantly low (normal range: 500 to 1500 cells/mm³) and indicates severe immunosuppression, putting the client at increased risk for opportunistic infections, warranting immediate attention from the provider.
C. A platelet count of 150,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention unless there are clinical symptoms associated.
D. A WBC count of 5,000/mm³ is within the normal range and does not indicate a need for urgent intervention.
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