n232 Med Surg Exam

ATI n232 Med Surg Exam

Total Questions : 49

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Question 1: View

A nurse is caring for a client.

Exhibits

Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Wear a mask when caring for the client: This is an important action to prevent the spread of influenza, which is transmitted via respiratory droplets. Wearing a mask helps protect both the healthcare provider and other patients from potential exposure to the virus, especially in the early stages of the disease when the client is most contagious.
B. Place the client in a private room: This action is recommended to minimize the risk of transmitting the influenza virus to other patients. Isolating the client in a private room can help control the spread of infection, making it a necessary measure in this situation.
C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake: Adequate hydration is essential for clients with influenza to help alleviate fever and maintain overall health. Increasing fluid intake supports the immune system and helps prevent complications such as dehydration, so encouraging the client to drink more fluids is appropriate.
D. Place the client on contact precautions: While contact precautions are essential for preventing the spread of infections transmitted by direct contact, they are not specifically necessary for influenza, which is primarily airborne and droplet transmitted. Standard precautions, including droplet precautions, are sufficient for managing a client with influenza.
E. Prepare to administer an antibiotic to the client: This action is not appropriate because influenza is a viral infection, and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Treatment for influenza typically involves antiviral medications if indicated, supportive care, and symptom management rather than antibiotics. Therefore, this option should not be included in the actions the nurse takes.


Question 2: View

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client.

Exhibits

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.

Explanation

  • Asthma: The client’s symptoms of wheezing, chest tightness, and persistent dry cough, especially worsening at night, are characteristic of asthma. The presence of bilateral wheezing and a low pulse oximetry reading of 90% indicate that the client is experiencing bronchoconstriction and reduced airflow, which are hallmark features of an asthma exacerbation.
  • Plan to administer bronchodilator: Administering a bronchodilator is essential in treating asthma as it helps relax the bronchial muscles, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow. This intervention is crucial for alleviating wheezing and shortness of breath associated with an asthma attack.
  • Measure the client's peak airflow: Measuring peak airflow using a peak flow meter helps assess the severity of the asthma and the effectiveness of the bronchodilator therapy. It provides objective data on the client’s lung function, allowing the nurse to evaluate changes in the client’s condition over time and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.
  • Prepare to administer an antibiotic: This action is not appropriate for asthma since antibiotics are ineffective against viral conditions and are typically used for bacterial infections such as pneumonia. Since the client is experiencing asthma symptoms rather than an infection, this intervention does not address the underlying problem.
  • Request a prescription for a diuretic: This action is also not appropriate in this scenario. Diuretics are used to manage fluid overload conditions, such as pulmonary edema or heart failure, and would not be indicated for a client with asthma experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath.
  • Teach the client pursed lip breathing: This technique is more commonly used in COPD to prevent airway collapse rather than in asthma, where bronchodilators provide more immediate relief.
  • Oxygen saturation: Monitoring oxygen saturation is critical for assessing the effectiveness of treatment in clients with asthma. A low oxygen saturation level indicates inadequate oxygenation, which necessitates immediate intervention. Tracking this parameter helps ensure the client is receiving adequate oxygen during their treatment.
  • Pulmonary function tests: While pulmonary function tests are useful for assessing long-term lung function, they provide valuable information on how well the lungs are functioning. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), including forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), help evaluate the degree of airway obstruction and response to treatment. Monitoring PFTs over time provides insight into asthma control and treatment effectiveness.
  • Weight: Monitoring weight is not a primary concern in managing asthma exacerbations. While it can be relevant in certain chronic conditions or for assessing fluid retention, it is not directly related to monitoring respiratory status or the effectiveness of asthma treatment.
  • Temperature: While it is important to monitor temperature in general to identify potential infections, it is not specifically relevant to assessing asthma status unless there are other indications of an underlying infection contributing to the respiratory symptoms. In the context of asthma management, oxygen saturation and peak airflow are more critical parameters.
  • Urine output: Monitoring urine output is not a direct indicator of asthma status. It is more relevant in assessing kidney function and fluid balance, which are not primary concerns in the acute management of asthma exacerbations.
  • COPD typically presents with a long history of smoking, chronic cough, and progressive respiratory symptoms. In this scenario, the client is a nonsmoker, and the acute nature of the symptoms is more indicative of asthma rather than COPD.
  • Pulmonary edema often presents with symptoms such as cough with frothy sputum, severe shortness of breath, and hypoxia, typically related to heart failure. The client’s symptoms are more consistent with asthma rather than fluid overload.
  • Pneumonia: Pneumonia usually presents with symptoms such as productive cough, fever, chills, and localized lung findings. While wheezing can occur, the lack of fever and the specific nighttime worsening of symptoms align more closely with asthma than with pneumonia.
  • Asthma: The client’s symptoms of wheezing, chest tightness, and dry cough, especially worsening at night, are characteristic of asthma. The presence of bilateral wheezing and a low pulse oximetry reading indicate bronchoconstriction and reduced airflow, consistent with an asthma exacerbation.

Question 3: View

A nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas results for a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should expect which abnormal finding?

Explanation

A. Increased arterial oxygen: Clients with COPD typically experience chronic hypoxemia due to alveolar destruction, airway inflammation, and mucus production, which impair gas exchange. Rather than increased oxygen levels, they often have a decreased PaOâ‚‚, requiring supplemental oxygen therapy. However, excessive oxygen administration can suppress their respiratory drive, worsening COâ‚‚ retention.
B. Increased pH: COPD is associated with respiratory acidosis due to chronic COâ‚‚ retention from inadequate alveolar ventilation. While the kidneys compensate by increasing bicarbonate retention, the pH usually remains low or near normal in chronic cases rather than becoming elevated. A higher pH would indicate alkalosis, which is not typical in COPD unless there is an additional metabolic disturbance.
C. Increased carbon dioxide: COPD causes airway obstruction and reduced alveolar ventilation, leading to COâ‚‚ retention (hypercapnia). As COâ‚‚ accumulates in the blood, it lowers the pH, resulting in respiratory acidosis. Chronic hypercapnia is a hallmark of advanced COPD, and in response, the kidneys retain bicarbonate to partially compensate, stabilizing the pH over time but leaving PaCOâ‚‚ elevated.
D. Decreased alveolar function: While COPD does lead to progressive alveolar damage and reduced gas exchange, this is a structural and functional change rather than a specific abnormality seen in arterial blood gases. The primary ABG finding in COPD is hypercapnia, which reflects inadequate ventilation and COâ‚‚ retention rather than just decreased alveolar function alone.


Question 4: View

A nurse is caring for a client who reports experiencing alteration in sense of smell following surgery for a total laryngectomy. The nurse should address the client's concern through which of the following response?

Explanation

A. "Your body will slowly develop an ability to smell through your stoma." The olfactory system relies on air passing through the nasal passages to detect scents. After a total laryngectomy, the airway is rerouted through a stoma, bypassing the nose entirely. The body does not develop an alternative way to smell through the stoma, making this statement inaccurate.
B. "Breathing through a stoma has altered your sense of smell." A total laryngectomy permanently separates the respiratory and digestive tracts, preventing air from passing through the nose, which is necessary for olfaction. As a result, clients often experience anosmia (loss of smell). This response accurately explains the reason behind the alteration in the client’s sense of smell.
C. "Your sense of smell will gradually return after several months." Unlike temporary post-surgical changes, the loss of smell after a total laryngectomy is typically permanent unless the client learns to use techniques such as the "polite yawning" method (nasal airflow-inducing maneuver) to regain some olfactory function. It does not naturally return over time.
D. "As your appetite returns, your sense of smell will also return." Appetite and sense of smell are closely linked, but appetite improvement does not restore olfaction after a laryngectomy. Since air no longer flows through the nasal passages, the ability to detect smells is significantly impaired or lost.


Question 5: View

A nurse on a quality control committee is evaluating the results of recently implemented measures designed to reduce client medication errors. Which of the following methods should the nurse use to evaluate the success of the changes?

Explanation

A. Conduct a study about the time and money costs of implementing the change. While analyzing costs and time efficiency is important for evaluating resource utilization, it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the changes in reducing medication errors. The primary goal of quality improvement is to assess patient safety outcomes rather than financial impact alone.
B. Establish a benchmark to identify a standard of performance. Setting benchmarks is a useful strategy for quality control, but it is a preliminary step in the evaluation process. Benchmarks provide a target for improvement, but they do not measure whether the specific changes implemented have led to a reduction in medication errors.
C. Compare the number of medication errors before and after the action was implemented. The most effective way to evaluate the success of the changes is to analyze pre- and post-intervention data. Comparing the frequency of medication errors before and after the quality improvement measures allows for an objective assessment of whether the interventions have led to a meaningful reduction in errors.
D. Provide the staff with a questionnaire to quantify staff satisfaction with the changes. Staff feedback is valuable for assessing workflow and morale, but it does not directly measure the effectiveness of the intervention in reducing medication errors. A reduction in actual error rates provides a more concrete evaluation of the intervention’s success.


Question 6: View

A client has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing client teaching, what information should a nurse prioritize?

Explanation

A. The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen. Tuberculosis requires strict adherence to a long-term antibiotic regimen, typically lasting 6 to 9 months, to prevent drug resistance, treatment failure, and disease relapse. Noncompliance can lead to multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB), which is more difficult to treat. Directly observed therapy (DOT) is often recommended to ensure adherence.
B. The client must remain in respiratory isolation until medication treatment ends. While respiratory isolation is essential for active TB, it is not required until the full course of treatment is completed. Isolation is typically maintained until the client has received at least two weeks of effective therapy, symptoms improve, and three consecutive sputum smears are negative for acid-fast bacilli (AFB).
C. The fact that the disease is self-limiting, but can take up to two years to resolve. TB is not self-limiting; without proper treatment, it can persist indefinitely, worsen, and become fatal. Standard treatment with first-line drugs such as isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide effectively eradicates the infection within 6 to 9 months in most cases.
D. The importance of participating in physical therapy to re-establish functional abilities. While TB can cause fatigue and weakness, physical therapy is not a primary focus of treatment. The priority is to eradicate the infection through strict medication adherence, as untreated TB can progress to severe pulmonary damage, systemic involvement, and complications.


Question 7: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has a living will which states Do Not Resuscitate (DNR), but whose children have decided that their parent should be a full code. The client has coded twice. The other nurses do not seem to have any issues with the situation, but the nurse feels distressed. Which of the following best describes this source of conflict?

Explanation

A. Cultural differences. While cultural beliefs may influence end-of-life decisions, the primary issue in this scenario is not cultural misunderstanding but rather the conflict between the client’s documented wishes and the family's demands. Cultural differences typically pertain to variations in values, traditions, or beliefs, rather than legal and ethical dilemmas regarding patient autonomy.
B. Ethical conflict. The nurse is experiencing moral distress due to a conflict between ethical principles—specifically, the principle of patient autonomy (respecting the client’s right to make their own healthcare decisions) and beneficence (providing care that benefits the client). The client’s living will, a legally binding document, states Do Not Resuscitate (DNR), yet the children are insisting on full resuscitation. The nurse’s distress arises from witnessing actions that contradict the client’s wishes and ethical nursing responsibilities.
C. Competition between groups. There is no indication that different groups, such as healthcare teams or family members, are competing for resources or control. The conflict stems from an ethical dilemma rather than rivalry or organizational disputes.
D. Scarcity, safety, and security. This situation does not involve limited resources, threats to safety, or security concerns. The distress is rooted in the ethical dilemma of honoring the client’s advance directive versus the family’s insistence on aggressive resuscitation measures.


Question 8: View

A nurse is learning about the Institute of Medicine (IOM) [now National Academy of Medicine (NAM) characteristics of Healthcare Quality. The nurse should recognize which of the following best describes the characteristics of the efficiency domain in Healthcare Quality initiatives.

Explanation

A. Opening and utilizing supplies that are necessary for the task. The efficiency domain in healthcare quality focuses on minimizing waste, optimizing resource utilization, and reducing unnecessary costs. By ensuring that only necessary supplies are used, healthcare facilities can prevent waste, control expenses, and enhance operational efficiency, making this choice the best representation of the efficiency domain.
B. Working to reduce wait times in the emergency department. Reducing wait times falls under the timeliness domain rather than efficiency. Timeliness ensures that patients receive care without unnecessary delays, improving access to treatment and patient outcomes. While efficiency and timeliness are related, reducing wait times primarily aligns with improving prompt care delivery rather than minimizing waste.
C. Using an interpreter for patients who do not speak the health-care provider's language. This action falls under the equity domain, which ensures that all individuals receive fair and unbiased care regardless of language, socioeconomic status, or cultural background. Providing language services improves access to quality healthcare but does not specifically address efficiency.
D. Utilizing the CAUTI bundle to prevent urinary tract infections when placing indwelling urinary catheters. This initiative falls under the safety domain, which focuses on preventing harm to patients through evidence-based practices. Implementing infection prevention measures improves patient safety but is not directly related to efficiency, which focuses on cost-effectiveness and resource management.


Question 9: View

A nurse is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Explanation

Formula:

Volume to administer (mL) = (Desired dose (mg) / Available concentration (mg/mL))

Desired dose = 1.6 mg

Available concentration = 2 mg / 5 mL

Calculate the concentration per mL:

2 mg / 5 mL = 0.4 mg/mL

Volume to administer = 1.6 mg / 0.4 mg/mL

= 4 mL

The nurse should administer 4 mL per dose.


Question 10: View

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should prioritize which precaution when administering nasal oxygen therapy to the client?

Explanation

A. Encourage the client to take breaks from oxygen use to prevent tolerance. Oxygen therapy does not cause "tolerance," and taking breaks can lead to hypoxemia in COPD clients. Continuous low-flow oxygen is essential to maintaining adequate oxygenation while avoiding hypercapnia. Stopping oxygen therapy intermittently can increase the risk of respiratory distress.
B. Assess cheeks and posterior ears for signs of skin breakdown. While it is important to monitor for pressure injuries from nasal cannula tubing, this is a general nursing consideration for all patients receiving oxygen therapy. It is not the highest priority when managing oxygen therapy in clients with COPD, where maintaining appropriate oxygen levels is critical.
C. Maintain nasal oxygen at a 1 to 2 liter/minute flow rate. Clients with COPD often have chronic COâ‚‚ retention and rely on hypoxic drive for ventilation. Administering high-flow oxygen can suppress their respiratory drive, leading to COâ‚‚ narcosis and respiratory failure. To prevent this, oxygen should be administered at the lowest effective flow rate, typically 1 to 2 L/min via nasal cannula, while closely monitoring oxygen saturation and blood gases.
D. Teach the client how to safely increase oxygen flow when they deem necessary. Allowing a client with COPD to adjust their oxygen flow independently can be dangerous, as excessive oxygen can lead to hypercapnia and respiratory depression. Oxygen adjustments should be made based on clinical assessments and healthcare provider orders.


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