A) Duloxetine: Duloxetine, an SNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor), is commonly used for depression and chronic pain. It can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in older adults, due to its effects on norepinephrine, which can lead to blood pressure fluctuations upon standing.

B) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urine output, leading to a decrease in blood volume. This reduction in blood volume can result in orthostatic hypotension, particularly when the client changes positions quickly, such as moving from lying down to standing.

C) Telmisartan: Telisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat hypertension. It can cause vasodilation and a reduction in blood pressure, which may lead to orthostatic hypotension, especially in older adults who are more sensitive to blood pressure changes.

D) Atorvastatin: Atorvastatin, a statin used to lower cholesterol, does not typically cause orthostatic hypotension. Its primary action is on lipid levels rather than blood pressure, making it less likely to contribute to this condition.

E) Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that reduces the risk of blood clots. It does not generally affect blood pressure or cause orthostatic hypotension, as its mechanism of action is related to inhibiting platelet aggregation rather than influencing vascular tone or fluid balance.

A) Epinephrine:
Epinephrine is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest. It does not reverse the effects of anticoagulants like warfarin and is not indicated for managing an elevated INR.

B) Atropine:
Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and other conditions but does not counteract the effects of warfarin. It is not appropriate for managing an elevated INR.

C) Protamine:
Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant, not warfarin. It is not effective in managing high INR levels associated with warfarin therapy.

D) Vitamin K:
Vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin. An INR of 5.2 indicates a high risk of bleeding, and administering Vitamin K can help to reduce the anticoagulant effects of warfarin and bring the INR back to a safer range.

A) Explain the purpose for the medications:
While explaining the purpose of the medications is important, it is crucial first to understand the reason behind the client's refusal. This can help tailor the explanation to address specific concerns or misconceptions.

B) Ask the client why he is refusing to take the medications:
Asking the client about their reasons for refusing the medications is a critical first step. This approach allows the nurse to address any concerns, educate the client, and potentially find alternative solutions or treatments that the client may be more willing to accept.

C) Tell the client the physician wants him to take the medications:
Simply telling the client that the physician wants them to take the medications does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal. It is important to engage with the client to understand their perspective and address any concerns they might have.

D) Document that the client refuses the medications:
Documentation of the refusal is necessary for legal and medical records, but it should not be the initial action. Understanding the client’s reasons for refusal and attempting to address those reasons should be prioritized before documenting the refusal.

A) Flumazenil: Flumazenil is an antidote used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, which are central nervous system depressants. It is not effective in treating digoxin toxicity, as it does not interact with the cardiac glycoside effects of digoxin.

B) Acetylcysteine: Acetylcysteine is primarily used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose and to help manage mucus in respiratory conditions. It has no effect on digoxin toxicity and would not be appropriate for treating this condition.

C) Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Like flumazenil and acetylcysteine, naloxone is not effective in addressing digoxin toxicity and does not counteract the effects of cardiac glycosides.

D) Fab antibody fragments: Fab antibody fragments, also known as Digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind or DigiFab), are the appropriate treatment for severe digoxin toxicity. These fragments bind to digoxin, neutralizing its effects and allowing the body to eliminate it safely. This is the most effective and specific treatment for life-threatening digoxin toxicity.

A) "Crushing the medication is a good idea, and I can mix it in some ice cream for you."
Crushing enteric-coated medications is not advisable as it can disrupt the medication’s intended release mechanism. Enteric coatings are designed to protect the stomach lining and ensure that the medication is released in the intestines. Crushing the medication would bypass these protective mechanisms.

B) "Crushing the medication might cause you to have a stomachache or indigestion."
While this statement is somewhat true, it does not fully address the primary concern. Enteric-coated medications are designed to protect the stomach lining and to ensure proper absorption. Crushing them could lead to other issues beyond just stomachache or indigestion.

C) "Crushing the medication would release all the medication at once, rather than over time."
This is the most accurate response. Enteric-coated aspirin is designed to dissolve in the intestines rather than the stomach, and crushing it would lead to the medication being released all at once, which could potentially cause irritation or harm to the stomach and reduce the medication's effectiveness.

D) "Crushing is unsafe, as it destroys the ingredients in the medication."
While crushing enteric-coated medications can be unsafe, the primary issue is not the destruction of the ingredients but the loss of the medication’s intended release mechanism. This can result in adverse effects or reduced efficacy.

A) Discard the medication:
The safest action is to discard the medication. Medications past their expiration date may not be effective and could potentially be unsafe. Using expired medications can pose risks, and discarding them ensures that the client is not exposed to potentially compromised treatments.

B) Give the medication:
Administering expired medication is not appropriate as it could be ineffective or harmful. The expiration date indicates that the medication may no longer be guaranteed to work as intended or might have degraded, making it unsafe to give.

C) Return the medication to the pharmacy:
Returning expired medication to the pharmacy is not a standard practice. The medication should be disposed of according to facility protocols, and the pharmacy should be notified of the issue so they can take appropriate actions.

D) Notify the provider:
While notifying the provider is important if there are issues with medication availability or alternatives, the immediate action regarding the expired medication itself is to discard it. The provider can be informed as part of addressing the medication issue and determining the next steps.

A) Withholding the medication if the heart rate is above 100/min:
Digoxin is typically withheld if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute (bradycardia) rather than above 100 beats per minute. In fact, a heart rate above 100/min may indicate tachycardia, which is not necessarily a contraindication for administering digoxin.

B) Evaluating the client for nausea, vomiting, and anorexia:
These symptoms are signs of digoxin toxicity. Evaluating for these symptoms is crucial as part of monitoring for adverse effects. Clients experiencing these symptoms may need their digoxin levels checked and potentially adjusted.

C) Instructing the client to eat foods that are low in potassium:
Digoxin therapy requires adequate potassium levels for effectiveness. Clients should be encouraged to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

D) Measuring apical pulse rate for 30 seconds before administration:
The apical pulse should be measured for a full minute to accurately assess the heart rate before administering digoxin. A shorter measurement may not provide a reliable assessment of the heart rate.

A) Apply pressure to the client's nasolacrimal duct after instillation:
Applying gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct (located at the inner corner of the eye) after administering ophthalmic medication helps to reduce systemic absorption and increase the medication’s efficacy. This technique helps to prevent the medication from draining into the nasolacrimal duct and into the systemic circulation.

B) Clean the client's eye from the outer canthus to the inner canthus before instillation:
The eye should be cleaned from the inner canthus to the outer canthus to avoid transferring debris or infection from the outer parts of the eye to the inner areas. Cleaning from outer to inner canthus may cause contamination.

C) Ask the client to tightly squeeze their eyes shut after the instillation:
Asking the client to tightly squeeze their eyes shut is not recommended as it can cause the medication to be expelled or lead to increased systemic absorption. Instead, the client should gently close their eyes to allow for proper absorption.

D) Instill the ophthalmic medication directly on the client's cornea:
The medication should be administered into the conjunctival sac rather than directly on the cornea. Direct application to the cornea can cause irritation or damage.

Calculating the Morphine Sulfate Dose:Problem: Administer 2 mg of morphine sulfate IV bolus. The available concentration is 10 mg/mL.

Steps:

Set up a proportion:

We want to find the number of milliliters (mL) needed.

We know the desired dose (2 mg) and the concentration of the medication (10 mg/mL).

Proportion:

x mL / 2 mg = 1 mL / 10 mg

Cross-multiply:

10x = 2

Solve for x:

x = 2 / 10

x = 0.2

Answer: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate per dose.

A) Ask the client to inhale the medication quickly for 1 second:
The client should inhale the medication slowly and deeply, not quickly. A rapid inhalation can reduce the effectiveness of the medication as it may not reach the deeper parts of the lungs effectively.

B) Ask the client to hold their breath for 2 seconds after inhalation:
The client should hold their breath for about 10 seconds after inhalation to allow the medication to settle in the lungs and be absorbed. Holding the breath for just 2 seconds is typically insufficient for optimal medication delivery.

C) Shake the MDI prior to administration:
Shaking the MDI before use is important to ensure that the medication is properly mixed and delivered in the correct dose. Failure to shake the MDI can result in an uneven distribution of medication.

D) Wash the MDI canister in warm water after each use:
The MDI canister should not be washed frequently, as this can affect the device's function and lead to potential contamination. The canister should be cleaned as per the manufacturer’s instructions, typically every few days or as needed.