A. Fidelity: Fidelity refers to the responsibility to maintain trust and uphold promises made to clients. While important, the core issue in this case is not about fulfilling prior commitments but rather about responding truthfully to a direct question from the adolescent regarding their medical condition.

B. Authority: Authority is the recognized power to make decisions or enforce obedience, typically within a professional or legal framework. In this situation, the ethical dilemma is not related to decision-making power but centers on the nurse's obligation to provide honest communication.

C. Justice: Justice emphasizes fairness and equitable treatment of all clients in healthcare settings. Although justice is critical to ethical practice, the specific challenge here involves answering truthfully when asked about a relapse, rather than issues of equitable treatment or distribution of care.

D. Veracity: Veracity demands honesty and transparency when communicating with clients about their health. When the adolescent directly questions the nurse about their medical status, veracity obligates the nurse to provide truthful and accurate information, respecting the client's right to know.

A. "A client must sign an Against Medical Advice form if he withdraws consent.": An Against Medical Advice (AMA) form is specifically used when a client chooses to leave a healthcare facility against medical advice, not when they withdraw consent for a procedure. Withdrawing consent does not require an AMA form and follows a separate legal and ethical process.

B. "A client can withdraw consent at any time after signing the informed consent form.": Clients maintain the right to autonomy throughout their care, including the right to withdraw consent at any point before or during a procedure. Signing the form does not waive their right to change their mind, and healthcare providers must respect this decision without penalizing the client.

C. "A client who is involuntarily admitted to a mental health unit cannot withdraw consent for treatment.": Even clients who are involuntarily admitted retain certain rights, including the right to refuse specific treatments unless they are legally deemed incompetent or pose an imminent threat. Involuntary admission does not mean automatic consent to all treatments.

D. "A client must provide a written refusal for a procedure for which he has already signed an informed consent.": Clients can verbally withdraw consent at any time; a written refusal is not legally required. While documentation of the client's decision is necessary for the medical record, insisting on a written refusal is not a legal prerequisite for withdrawal of consent.

• Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth: Emergency cesarean delivery is indicated in cases of fetal distress or placenta previa with severe bleeding at term. In a hydatidiform mole, there is no viable fetus, and the priority is evacuation of the molar tissue rather than delivery by cesarean section.
• Prepare the client for suction curettage: Suction curettage is the treatment of choice for a hydatidiform mole. It allows for the complete evacuation of abnormal trophoblastic tissue, preventing complications such as severe hemorrhage and progression to malignant gestational trophoblastic disease.
• Anticipate a prescription for methotrexate: Methotrexate is primarily used to treat ectopic pregnancies or persistent gestational trophoblastic disease after a molar pregnancy, not for initial management. Immediate evacuation of the mole by suction curettage is the first-line intervention for this client.
• Remind the client that weekly blood tests are needed to measure pregnancy hormone: Following a molar pregnancy, weekly beta-hCG tests are critical to monitor for residual trophoblastic tissue or the development of choriocarcinoma. A declining beta-hCG confirms the resolution of disease, while a plateau or rise indicates persistent disease.
• Administer terbutaline: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus in cases of preterm labor. In the case of a hydatidiform mole, uterine evacuation is necessary rather than uterine relaxation, making terbutaline inappropriate for this situation.
• Vaginal bleeding: Clients with a hydatidiform mole are at risk for significant vaginal bleeding due to the abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue. Monitoring the amount and type of vaginal bleeding helps detect hemorrhage or retained molar tissue requiring urgent intervention.
• Blood pressure: Elevated blood pressure is a potential complication of hydatidiform mole, similar to preeclampsia, and can occur even in the first or second trimester. Regular monitoring of blood pressure is essential to detect worsening hypertensive symptoms early.
• Uterus for hypertonicity: Hypertonicity of the uterus is typically monitored in cases of labor or uterine rupture concerns. In a hydatidiform mole, the uterus is distended by abnormal tissue but hypertonicity is not a primary concern needing monitoring in this condition.
• Unilateral pelvic pain: Unilateral pelvic pain is more characteristic of ectopic pregnancy rather than a molar pregnancy. In hydatidiform mole, generalized uterine enlargement and discomfort are more typical, so unilateral pelvic pain is not a focus for this client.
• Cervical dilation per provider: Cervical dilation is not the main indicator of progress or concern with a molar pregnancy. The focus is on removing molar tissue and monitoring beta-hCG levels, not on the progress of cervical changes like in labor.

• Frequent headaches: Phenelzine, an MAOI, can cause hypertensive crisis, with one of the earliest signs being persistent or worsening headaches. Frequent headaches must be treated as a possible warning of dangerously elevated blood pressure and require immediate provider notification.
• Elevated blood pressure (169/91 mm Hg): The significant rise in the client's blood pressure compared to baseline indicates new-onset hypertension. This is a serious adverse effect associated with MAOIs and signals the potential development of a hypertensive crisis, which must be urgently addressed.
• Difficulty sleeping: Difficulty sleeping or insomnia is a common side effect of phenelzine and other antidepressants. Although not life-threatening, insomnia can impair recovery if untreated and should be documented and discussed with the provider to adjust management if needed.
• Feeling much better: Improvement in mood and reduced fatigue are intended therapeutic outcomes of phenelzine treatment. These findings are positive signs and do not indicate an adverse reaction that needs intervention.
• Heart rate 78/min and respiratory rate 18/min: Both values are within normal ranges and do not suggest immediate concerns related to cardiovascular or respiratory function. They should continue to be monitored but do not require urgent action.

A. Document an incident report in a client's medical record: Incident reports are essential for internal documentation but should not be placed in the client’s medical record. Including them in the medical record can lead to legal complications. This action addresses individual events rather than contributing to systematic quality improvement efforts.

B. Notify the provider if a client falls: Notifying the provider about a fall is a necessary clinical step to ensure immediate evaluation and care for the client. However, simply informing the provider does not contribute directly to a quality improvement initiative aimed at analyzing and reducing overall fall rates.

C. Assist with the care of a client who has fallen: Providing immediate care after a fall is crucial to ensure client safety and manage injuries. However, assisting after the fall focuses on acute clinical response rather than on proactive measures to identify trends and reduce the incidence of future falls.

D. Collect data about each fall: Collecting data is a fundamental part of quality improvement projects. By systematically gathering information on when, where, and how falls occur, patterns can be identified, leading to the development of targeted interventions aimed at preventing future incidents.

A. A client who is displaying aggression: Using a gait belt on an aggressive client is unsafe because sudden movements or resistance could lead to injury for both the client and the caregiver. Aggressive behavior requires de-escalation strategies before considering physical assistance or mobility interventions like a gait belt.

B. A client who has had chest trauma: Gait belts should be avoided in clients with chest trauma because the pressure applied around the torso can exacerbate injuries such as rib fractures, pulmonary contusions, or other thoracic complications, posing significant health risks during mobilization.

C. A client who has limited arm strength: A gait belt is appropriate for clients with limited arm strength because it provides secure support around the waist without requiring the client to rely heavily on their upper limbs. It allows for safer ambulation and transfer by offering the caregiver a firm point of control.

D. A client who has a thoracic incision: Applying a gait belt over or near a thoracic incision can interfere with wound healing, cause pain, and increase the risk of wound dehiscence. Alternative methods for assisting mobility should be used for clients with fresh surgical sites in the thoracic region.

• Pneumonia: The preschooler is showing signs of shallow breathing, refusal to use the incentive spirometer, and slightly diminished breath sounds in the bilateral lower lobes, all of which increase the risk of developing pneumonia. Postoperative patients, especially young children, are vulnerable to pneumonia due to pain-limited deep breathing and poor pulmonary expansion.
• Wound infection: Although there is some serosanguinous drainage at the incision site, the dressing remains dry overall, and there is no mention of redness, warmth, or purulent discharge typically associated with wound infection. Therefore, wound infection is not the primary concern at this point.
• Ileus: Hypoactive bowel sounds are present, but they have been stable throughout the day without worsening abdominal distension or absence of bowel function. While ileus is a postoperative risk, the more pressing concern given the respiratory findings is pneumonia.
• Shallow breathing: The child consistently shows shallow, unlabored respirations throughout assessments, which indicate limited lung expansion. Without effective use of the incentive spirometer and adequate deep breathing, shallow breathing places the child at high risk for pulmonary complications such as pneumonia.
• Increasing temperature: Although the child's temperature rose slightly by 1600, it remains below 38° C (100.4° F), which is not typically classified as a fever. The minor temperature elevation could be related to inflammation rather than an infectious process at this stage.
• Hypoactive bowel sounds: Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in the early postoperative period, particularly following abdominal surgery due to the effects of anesthesia and manipulation of the bowel during surgery. While they should be monitored, they are not the primary finding indicating the most urgent complication in this situation.

• alcohol intoxication: Although the client consumed one beer, this small amount is unlikely to cause unresponsiveness, respiratory depression, or the need for naloxone administration. Alcohol intoxication alone does not explain the profound sedation and pinpoint pupils observed.
• alcohol withdrawal: Alcohol withdrawal typically presents with signs like agitation, tremors, hallucinations, and seizures, not sedation, miosis, and depressed respiratory drive. The client’s symptoms are inconsistent with alcohol withdrawal.
• hallucinogen intoxication: Hallucinogen use usually leads to agitation, paranoia, hallucinations, and dilated pupils (mydriasis), not the sedated state, respiratory depression, and miotic pupils that this client is exhibiting.
• opioid intoxication: The client's unresponsiveness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, combined with a positive response to naloxone, are classic indicators of opioid intoxication. These findings directly align with the expected effects of opioid overdose.
• opioid withdrawal: Opioid withdrawal presents with signs like agitation, mydriasis, diarrhea, piloerection, and flu-like symptoms. The client’s current state of sedation and miotic pupils contradicts what would be seen during opioid withdrawal.
• amount of alcohol consumed: The small amount of alcohol (one beer) does not correlate with the severity of the client’s clinical presentation. Thus, alcohol consumption is not the primary factor contributing to the current state.
• breath sounds: Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally, indicating that the lungs are not the source of the client's critical condition. There is no evidence of respiratory infection or pulmonary complications.
• abdominal findings: Decreased bowel sounds are common in opioid intoxication due to decreased gastrointestinal motility. However, while supportive, this finding is less definitive than the hallmark sign of pupil constriction.
• pupil characteristics: The presence of pinpoint pupils (miosis) is a hallmark sign of opioid intoxication. Miotic pupils, especially in an unresponsive client who improved after naloxone, strongly support opioid overdose as the primary diagnosis.
• current temperature: The client's temperature is within normal limits, providing no significant diagnostic clue toward explaining the cause of unresponsiveness or respiratory depression.

A. Anorexia: Anorexia, or loss of appetite, is not a typical adverse effect directly associated with heparin use. While it may occur due to general postoperative factors, it is not an urgent or life-threatening reaction that necessitates immediate reporting related to anticoagulant therapy.

B. Epistaxis: Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a sign of potential bleeding complications, which is a major adverse effect of heparin. Because heparin inhibits clot formation, any evidence of spontaneous bleeding must be reported immediately to the provider to assess for potential heparin-induced bleeding disorders.

C. Weight gain: Weight gain could suggest fluid retention, but it is not a typical adverse effect of heparin. While postoperative clients should be monitored for signs of fluid imbalance, sudden bleeding signs like epistaxis are far more critical to recognize and report when administering anticoagulants.

D. Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or slow heart rate, is not commonly linked to heparin therapy. While abnormal heart rhythms may occur postoperatively for other reasons, they are not typically associated with bleeding risks from heparin and thus do not require urgent reporting specific to heparin use.

A. Review the need for the indwelling urinary catheter daily: Daily review of catheter necessity reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Prompt removal when no longer needed limits bacterial entry and colonization, which significantly lowers infection rates in hospitalized clients.

B. Empty the drainage bag when it is half full: The drainage bag should be emptied when it is about two-thirds full, not half full, to prevent backflow and reduce strain on the system. Emptying too early or too often increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the closed system.

C. Use soap and water to provide perineal care: Using soap and water for perineal hygiene maintains cleanliness and reduces bacterial colonization near the catheter site. Routine perineal care is a critical intervention to minimize the risk of ascending infections into the urinary tract.

D. Place the drainage bag on the bed when transporting the client: The drainage bag must remain below bladder level during transport to prevent backflow of urine into the bladder. Placing the bag on the bed risks contamination and promotes reflux of potentially infected urine.

E. Encourage the client to drink 1000 mL of fluid daily: Although hydration generally helps prevent UTIs, this client is on a strict 1000 mL fluid restriction due to heart failure. Encouraging more fluid intake could worsen fluid overload and does not align with current prescribed therapy.

F. Change the indwelling urinary catheter tubing every 3 days: Routine changing of catheter tubing is not recommended unless clinically indicated (e.g., contamination, obstruction, infection). Unnecessary manipulation increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary system.