A 12-year-old girl presents to the pediatric clinic with complaints of severe lower abdominal pain during her menstrual periods, which started six months ago.
She describes the pain as cramping and rates it as 8 out of 10 on the pain scale.
Her mother reports that over-the-counter pain medications have provided little relief.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for her and what is the medical term for this condition?
Start oral contraceptive pills to regulate her menstrual cycle and reduce pain.
Suggest increasing the intake of dairy products to improve calcium levels and reduce pain.
Prescribe non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen to relieve pain.
Recommend a heating pad to be used on the abdomen during painful periods.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Oral contraceptive pills primarily work by suppressing ovulation and thinning the uterine lining, leading to lighter and less painful periods. While effective for dysmenorrhea, they are not typically the first-line treatment for a 12-year-old experiencing recent onset, as other less hormonally impactful options are usually tried first.
Choice B rationale
Increasing dairy intake primarily impacts bone health due to its calcium content. While calcium plays a role in muscle function, there is no strong scientific evidence directly linking increased dairy consumption to the reduction of menstrual pain caused by prostaglandins and uterine contractions in dysmenorrhea.
Choice C rationale
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which are key mediators of inflammation and pain. During menstruation, the uterus releases prostaglandins, causing contractions and pain. By blocking prostaglandin synthesis, NSAIDs effectively reduce the intensity of menstrual cramps. The medical term for severe pain during menstruation is dysmenorrhea.
Choice D rationale
Applying a heating pad to the abdomen provides localized warmth, which can help to relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and increase blood flow. This can offer symptomatic relief from menstrual cramps by reducing muscle spasms and alleviating discomfort, but it does not address the underlying physiological cause of dysmenorrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cryptorchidism is the medical term for the failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum. The scenario describes a 2-year-old male with one non-palpable testicle, which is the hallmark of cryptorchidism. Risk factors include prematurity and low birth weight.
Choice B rationale
An inguinal hernia is a protrusion of abdominal contents through the inguinal canal. While it can present as a swelling in the groin area, it is distinct from a missing testicle in the scrotum. Examination would typically reveal a palpable mass that may reduce with gentle pressure.
Choice C rationale
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis, the sac surrounding the testicle. It typically presents as a painless swelling of the scrotum. The testicle is usually palpable within the fluid-filled sac.
Choice D rationale
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency involving the twisting of the spermatic cord, which cuts off blood supply to the testicle. It presents with sudden, severe scrotal pain, swelling, and often nausea and vomiting. The examination would reveal a tender, firm, and retracted testicle. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale
Absence seizures, also known as petit mal seizures, are characterized by a sudden, brief lapse of consciousness, often accompanied by eye blinking or a vacant stare. The individual typically returns to full awareness quickly without any postictal confusion. .
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