A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?
Cooling baths
Blood transfusion
30 ml/kg of Lactated Ringers (LR)
NPO Status
The Correct Answer is C
The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.
D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.
It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The ABG results show a pH of 7.50, PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is a decrease in PaCO2 (hypocapnia), which can be caused by excessive ventilation.
To address the respiratory alkalosis, the nurse should decrease the respiratory rate. This would help reduce the amount of ventilation provided and allow the patient to retain more carbon dioxide (CO2), thereby increasing the PaCO2 levels and restoring acid-base balance.
B. Leaving the ventilator at the current settings in (option B) is incorrect because it may exacerbate respiratory alkalosis as it would maintain the same level of ventilation.
C. Increasing the tidal volume (VT) in (option C) is incorrect because it would not address the respiratory alkalosis. Tidal volume refers to the volume of air delivered with each breath, while the issue in this case is excessive ventilation leading to hypocapnia.
D. Increasing the FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not indicated based on the given ABG results. The oxygenation (PaO2) level is within normal limits (80 mmHg), suggesting adequate oxygenation.
It is important to consult with the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist for further guidance on adjusting the ventilator settings based on the patient's condition and response to therapy.
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