A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?
Cooling baths
Blood transfusion
30 ml/kg of Lactated Ringers (LR)
NPO Status
The Correct Answer is C
The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.
D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.
It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In the compensatory stage of shock, the body initiates various mechanisms to maintain perfusion to vital organs and restore homeostasis. Activation of the renin-angiotensin system is one of the compensatory responses. The decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the kidneys stimulate the release of renin from the kidneys. Renin acts on angiotensinogen, converting it into angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II by the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the release of aldosterone, leading to sodium and water retention. These mechanisms aim to increase blood pressure and cardiac output and restore fluid balance.
A. The initial stage of shock in (option A) is incorrect because it is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and the activation of various compensatory mechanisms, including the release of stress hormones. However, the renin-angiotensin system is not specifically mentioned as activated in this stage.
B. The progressive stage of shock in (option B) is incorrect because it occurs when compensatory mechanisms fail to maintain adequate perfusion, leading to worsening hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction. The renin-angiotensin system continues to be activated during this stage, but it is primarily associated with the compensatory stage.
C. The refractory stage of shock in (option C) is incorrect because it is the stage of severe and prolonged hypoperfusion, where organ failure becomes irreversible. The renin-angiotensin system may still be activated, but it is not the primary focus of this stage.
Therefore, the activation of the renin-angiotensin system occurs during the compensatory stage of shock.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.
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