A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?
Cooling baths
Blood transfusion
30 ml/kg of Lactated Ringers (LR)
NPO Status
The Correct Answer is C
The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.
D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.
It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Septic shock is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe infection, systemic inflammation, and inadequate tissue perfusion. Hypotension, as indicated by a low blood pressure reading, is a significant concern in septic shock. It reflects inadequate perfusion to vital organs and tissues, leading to potential organ dysfunction and damage.
While all the assessment data provided may be important and require attention, the low blood pressure (BP) reading indicates impaired systemic perfusion and can contribute to end-organ damage. The nurse should prioritize interventions aimed at improving perfusion and stabilizing the patient's blood pressure.
A. Arterial oxygen saturation is 90% in (option A) is incorrect because While an arterial oxygen saturation of 90% is below the desired range, it is not as immediately life-threatening as low blood pressure. Oxygen therapy and interventions to improve oxygenation should still be initiated, but addressing hypotension takes priority.
B. Urine output of 15 ml for 2 hours in (option B) is incorrect because Decreased urine output is a concerning sign, as it may indicate impaired renal perfusion. However, the immediate concern in septic shock is addressing the low blood pressure to improve overall perfusion, including renal perfusion.
C. Apical pulse 110 beats/min in (option C) is incorrect because: Tachycardia is a common finding in septic shock and represents the body's compensatory response to maintain cardiac output. While it requires monitoring and consideration, low blood pressure is a more significant concern.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Central venous pressure (CVP) is a measurement of the pressure in the central veins, which reflects the blood volume and right-sided cardiac function. High CVP readings may indicate fluid overload or impaired cardiac function, and intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause.
Administering IV diuretic medications can help reduce fluid volume by increasing urine output and promoting fluid elimination. By removing excess fluid, the diuretic medications can help lower the CVP and alleviate the high pressures.
The other options mentioned are not the anticipated actions for addressing high CVP:
A. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate in (option A) is incorrect because: If the CVP is already indicating high pressures, increasing the IV fluid infusion rate would further contribute to fluid overload and exacerbate the problem. This action would not be appropriate for high CVP readings.
C. Elevating the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees in (option C) is incorrect because Positioning the patient with the head of the bed elevated is commonly done to prevent complications such as aspiration or improve respiratory function. While it may have other benefits, it does not directly address the high CVP.
D. Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor in (option D) is incorrect because Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor is important for ongoing assessment and evaluation. However, in the presence of high CVP readings, intervention is necessary to address the underlying issue rather than solely documenting and monitoring.
Therefore, when a patient's CVP monitor indicates high pressures following surgery, the nurse would anticipate administering IV diuretic medications to help reduce fluid volume and lower the CVP.
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