Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT considered part of Beck's triad (classic indications of cardiac tamponade)?

muffled heart tones

marked hypotension

distended jugular veins

widening pulse pressure

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Beck's triad consists of three classic clinical manifestations that are suggestive of cardiac tamponade, which is the compression of the heart by accumulated fluid or blood within the pericardial sac. The three components of Beck's triad include:
A. Muffled heart tones in (option A) are incorrect because Cardiac tamponade can dampen or muffle heart sounds due to the presence of fluid or blood around the heart, which can impair sound transmission.
B. Marked hypotension in (option B) is incorrect because Cardiac tamponade can cause decreased cardiac output, leading to hypotension, which is characterized by low blood pressure.
C. Distended jugular veins in (option C) is incorrect because Elevated venous pressure resulting from impaired filling and elevated right-sided heart pressures can lead to jugular vein distension, which is commonly seen in cardiac tamponade.
However, widening pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure) is not typically part of Beck's triad. Widening pulse pressure is associated with her conditions such as aortic regurgitation, hyperthyroidism, or conditions involving increased stroke volume, rather than cardiac tamponade specifically.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Hemorrhagic shock is characterized by severe blood loss, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion and hypovolemia. The primary goal in the initial management of hemorrhagic shock is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Administering intravenous fluids, such as normal saline solution, is a critical intervention to address hypovolemia and improve blood pressure.
A. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now in (option A) is incorrect because: Plasmanate is a plasma-derived product used to replace coagulation factors. While it may be necessary to address coagulation abnormalities, administering intravenous fluids to restore volume takes priority over specific blood products.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation in (option B) is incorrect because Endotracheal intubation may be required in cases of impending respiratory failure or compromised airway, but it should not be the first action in addressing hypovolemic shock.
D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in (option D) is incorrect because transferring packed red blood cells is an important intervention to address blood loss and improve oxygen-carrying capacity. However, before administering blood products, it is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics through fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, in a patient with hemorrhagic shock, the nurse's first priority among the given options is to give normal saline solution of 250 mL/hr to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.

A. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. B. Give PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. C. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

In septic shock, one of the key goals of management is to restore and maintain adequate intravascular volume. However, in this case, the patient's urine output is low (30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours), suggesting inadequate renal perfusion and potential fluid overload.
Administering additional normal saline at an increased rate (250 mL/hr) without addressing the low urine output could potentially exacerbate fluid overload and further compromise the patient's condition.
A. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV in (option A) is incorrect because: Hydrocortisone is commonly used in septic shock to help stabilize blood pressure and modulate the inflammatory response.
B. Giving PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV in (option B) is incorrect because Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be administered as needed to address fluid overload or to increase urine output if there is evidence of volume overload.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used in septic shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and maintain adequate blood pressure.

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Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT considered part of Beck's triad (classic indications of cardiac tamponade)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wed pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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