A client diagnosed with a stroke complains of a severe headache. Which intervention would be the nursing priority?

Prepare for a STAT computed topography scan (CT)

Obtain a 12 lead electrocardiogram

Start an intravenous infusion of D5W at 100 mL/hr

Administer a nonnarcotic analgesics

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Prepare for a STAT computed tomography (CT) scan:
A severe headache in a client with a suspected stroke could be indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a hemorrhagic stroke, or another serious complication like cerebral edema. The priority intervention is to perform a CT scan to determine whether the stroke is ischemic (caused by a blockage) or hemorrhagic (caused by bleeding). This is crucial because the treatment approach for these two types of strokes differs significantly. For example, hemorrhagic strokes require immediate management to control bleeding and reduce ICP, whereas ischemic strokes may be treated with thrombolytics or other interventions. Therefore, preparing for a CT scan is the most urgent action to accurately diagnose the type of stroke and guide treatment decisions.

B) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG):
While an ECG may be useful in assessing the cardiac rhythm and identifying potential arrhythmias (which can contribute to stroke risk), it is not the priority intervention in a patient with a suspected stroke and severe headache. The primary concern is to identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic), and a CT scan is the most direct way to do this. A 12-lead ECG can be obtained later if cardiac issues are suspected after stroke diagnosis.

C) Start an intravenous infusion of D5W at 100 mL/hr:
Starting an IV infusion of D5W (5% dextrose in water) is not an appropriate priority for a patient with a severe headache and suspected stroke. In fact, administering dextrose solutions may worsen the patient's condition in the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, as it could exacerbate cerebral edema or increase intracranial pressure. Fluid management in stroke patients should be approached cautiously, and IV fluids should be tailored to the patient's specific needs. The focus should be on imaging to determine the type of stroke before initiating interventions like IV fluids.

D) Administer a nonnarcotic analgesic:
While pain relief is important, administering a nonnarcotic analgesic (such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen) is not the priority in this situation. The patient's severe headache could be a sign of a serious complication like increased ICP or hemorrhagic stroke, which requires immediate diagnostic workup, not just pain management. Administering pain medication without understanding the underlying cause of the headache could mask symptoms and delay critical treatment.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Intestines:
While abdominal trauma can affect the intestines, Kehr's sign, Cullen's sign, and Gray Turner's sign are more commonly associated with damage to the spleen rather than the intestines. Kehr's sign, in particular, is a hallmark of splenic injury, with pain referred to the left shoulder due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood in the peritoneum.

B) Liver:
Liver injuries often present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. While liver injuries can cause internal bleeding, Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs are more closely associated with retroperitoneal bleeding from the spleen rather than liver injuries. Kehr's sign, which is left-sided shoulder pain, would not typically indicate a liver injury.

C) Spleen:
The spleen is the most likely abdominal organ affected in this case due to the left-sided rib fractures. When the spleen is injured (often as a result of blunt trauma), it can cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage. This bleeding can irritate the diaphragm, leading to Kehr's sign, which presents as left shoulder pain. Additionally, Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising) and Gray Turner's sign (flank bruising) are indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can occur with splenic rupture or laceration.

D) Stomach:
While stomach injuries can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, they are less likely to cause the signs and symptoms seen in this patient (Kehr's, Cullen's, and Gray Turner's signs). Stomach trauma typically leads to pain and potential perforation, but it doesn't often cause the peritoneal bleeding patterns seen with splenic injuries.

A. take this medication as needed for pain" B. stop the medication if experience dry mouth. C. taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks. D. feel an increase in energy with this medication.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Take this medication as needed for pain:
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant typically prescribed for managing spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), rather than for pain. It should be taken as prescribed, typically on a scheduled basis rather than on an as-needed basis for pain. Misunderstanding this could lead to improper use of the medication and ineffective symptom management.

B) Stop the medication if I experience dry mouth:
Dry mouth is a potential side effect of baclofen, but it should not be the reason to stop the medication abruptly. Stopping baclofen suddenly can result in withdrawal symptoms and could potentially worsen spasticity. If dry mouth or other side effects are bothersome, the client should consult the healthcare provider for management options rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly.

C) Taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks:
This statement demonstrates a correct understanding of the proper way to discontinue baclofen. Baclofen should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms, which can include increased spasticity, hallucinations, or seizures. A gradual tapering of the dose over a period of 1 to 2 weeks is recommended to avoid withdrawal. This is the most appropriate and safe response.

D) Feel an increase in energy with this medication:
Baclofen is not a medication designed to increase energy. Its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasticity, not to provide a stimulant effect. If the client expects an increase in energy, this could indicate a misunderstanding of the medication's effects. Baclofen's focus is on reducing spasticity and muscle tightness, not improving energy levels.

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A client diagnosed with a stroke complains of a severe headache. Which intervention would be the nursing priority?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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