A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?

Hyperkalemia

Hypokalemia

Hyponatremia

Hypercalcemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels in the blood, is not typically seen in patients with SIADH. SIADH is primarily characterized by water retention and the resultant dilution of electrolytes, most notably sodium. Potassium levels are not directly affected by the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) abnormalities present in SIADH, and thus hyperkalemia is not an expected finding.

Choice B reason: Hypokalemia, which refers to low potassium levels in the blood, is also not a characteristic feature of SIADH. While potassium imbalances can occur due to a variety of conditions and medications, they are not the hallmark of SIADH. The syndrome's primary effect on electrolyte balance involves sodium, not potassium.

Choice C reason: Hyponatremia, or low sodium levels in the blood, is the defining feature of SIADH. In this condition, excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) leads to increased water reabsorption in the kidneys. This excess water dilutes the sodium in the bloodstream, leading to hyponatremia. The resulting imbalance can cause symptoms ranging from mild (such as headache and nausea) to severe (such as seizures and altered mental status), depending on the degree of sodium depletion.

Choice D reason: Hypercalcemia, or high calcium levels in the blood, is not associated with SIADH. The condition of SIADH affects water and sodium balance due to inappropriate ADH secretion but does not typically influence calcium levels. Hypercalcemia can be seen in other conditions, such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancies, but it is not related to the pathophysiology of SIADH.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Amoxicillin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections and is not relevant to the management of atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is a cardiac condition, and antibiotics do not play a role in its treatment.

Choice B reason: Reglan (metoclopramide) is a medication used to treat gastrointestinal issues such as gastroparesis and is not used in the management of atrial fibrillation. It does not address the primary concerns associated with atrial fibrillation, such as stroke risk and heart rate control.

Choice C reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and other acid-related conditions. It is not used in the management of atrial fibrillation and does not address the primary concerns associated with the condition.

Choice D reason: Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) commonly prescribed to patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clots forming in the heart, which can travel to the brain and cause a stroke. Rivaroxaban helps prevent these clots from forming, thereby reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.

A. Severe hypotension B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Bilateral kidney stones which are partially blocking the flow of urine D. Glomerulonephritis

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Severe hypotension is associated with prerenal acute kidney injury, not postrenal. Prerenal acute kidney injury results from decreased blood flow to the kidneys due to conditions like severe hypotension, leading to reduced kidney perfusion.

Choice B reason: Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a form of intrinsic or intrarenal acute kidney injury, not postrenal. ATN is typically caused by prolonged ischemia or exposure to nephrotoxic agents, which directly damage the kidney tubules.

Choice C reason: Postrenal acute kidney injury is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract that prevents urine from leaving the kidneys, leading to increased pressure and kidney damage. Bilateral kidney stones partially blocking the flow of urine can cause such an obstruction, leading to postrenal acute kidney injury.

Choice D reason: Glomerulonephritis is a type of intrinsic or intrarenal acute kidney injury, not postrenal. It involves inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, the filtering units within the kidneys, and is not typically caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract.

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A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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