A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following findings would indicate poor management of hypertension?
(Select All that Apply.)
Frequent headaches
Blood pressure consistently at goal
Normal renal function tests
Steady weight with no recent gain
Proteinuria on urinalysis
Left ventricular hypertrophy on echocardiogram
Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam
Correct Answer : E,F
A. Frequent headaches can be a symptom of hypertension but are not specific to poorly managed hypertension.
B. Blood pressure consistently at goal indicates good management of hypertension.
C. Normal renal function tests suggest that there has been no damage to the kidneys, a common consequence of poorly controlled hypertension.
D. Steady weight with no recent gain suggests good management of overall health, which can contribute to better blood pressure control.
E. Proteinuria indicates kidney damage, often a result of uncontrolled hypertension.
F. Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is a sign of chronic hypertension and indicates poor management, as it results from the heart working harder to pump blood against increased pressure.
G. Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam indicates that there is no evidence of hypertensive retinopathy, suggesting good hypertension management.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Assuming the episode was a migraine and scheduling a follow-up is not appropriate. TIAs are serious warning signs of potential future strokes and require immediate attention and evaluation.
B. Discharging the patient immediately after symptoms resolve is not appropriate. Even though symptoms resolve, TIAs are medical emergencies, and further evaluation is necessary to reduce the risk of a full-blown stroke.
C. Initiating antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin, is an appropriate action to reduce the risk of future strokes in patients who have had a TIA.
D. Ordering a CT scan of the head is appropriate to rule out an intracranial hemorrhage and other causes of the symptoms.
E. Starting anticoagulation therapy immediately without further evaluation is not recommended. The patient must be properly assessed before starting anticoagulation to determine the cause of the TIA and if anticoagulation is appropriate.
F. Conducting a carotid ultrasound is appropriate to assess for stenosis, which could be contributing to the TIA.
G. Referring the patient for lifestyle modifications, including smoking cessation and diet changes, is crucial to reduce future stroke risk. These interventions help prevent the recurrence of TIAs and strokes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Having the client breathe into a paper bag would help with respiratory alkalosis, not metabolic alkalosis.
B. Placing the client on seizure precautions is appropriate, as severe metabolic alkalosis can cause neurologic complications such as seizures.
C. Encouraging slow breathing may not significantly impact metabolic alkalosis.
D. Sodium bicarbonate administration would worsen metabolic alkalosis, not treat it.
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