A 58-year-old male patient with a history of colon cancer has developed jaundice. Which laboratory finding would most likely suggest liver metastasis as the cause of the jaundice?
Increased creatinine levels
Elevated serum amylase
Decreased albumin levels
Elevated serum bilirubin level
The Correct Answer is D
A. Increased creatinine levels may indicate kidney dysfunction, but it is not specifically related to liver metastasis.
B. Elevated serum amylase is typically associated with pancreatic conditions and not directly with liver metastasis.
C. Decreased albumin levels may occur with liver dysfunction but is not specific to liver metastasis.
D. Elevated serum bilirubin levels are a key indicator of liver dysfunction, and when seen in the context of jaundice and a history of colon cancer, they strongly suggest liver metastasis as the underlying cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Mast cells play a crucial role in the pathophysiology of asthma. They release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, which contribute to airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction in status asthmaticus.
B. T lymphocytes are involved in the immune response during asthma exacerbations. They release cytokines that further drive inflammation and airway remodeling in status asthmaticus.
C. Hyperreactivity is a characteristic of asthma, but it is a result of inflammation, rather than being a direct cause of the circulatory surge of inflammatory cells and cytokines.
D. Inflammation is a central feature of status asthmaticus. It leads to airway narrowing, increased mucus production, and the recruitment of inflammatory cells, contributing to severe symptoms.
E. Epithelial cells are involved in airway inflammation and repair. They release pro-inflammatory cytokines that attract immune cells to the site of infection or irritation, contributing to airway obstruction in asthma.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Assuming the episode was a migraine and scheduling a follow-up is not appropriate. TIAs are serious warning signs of potential future strokes and require immediate attention and evaluation.
B. Discharging the patient immediately after symptoms resolve is not appropriate. Even though symptoms resolve, TIAs are medical emergencies, and further evaluation is necessary to reduce the risk of a full-blown stroke.
C. Initiating antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin, is an appropriate action to reduce the risk of future strokes in patients who have had a TIA.
D. Ordering a CT scan of the head is appropriate to rule out an intracranial hemorrhage and other causes of the symptoms.
E. Starting anticoagulation therapy immediately without further evaluation is not recommended. The patient must be properly assessed before starting anticoagulation to determine the cause of the TIA and if anticoagulation is appropriate.
F. Conducting a carotid ultrasound is appropriate to assess for stenosis, which could be contributing to the TIA.
G. Referring the patient for lifestyle modifications, including smoking cessation and diet changes, is crucial to reduce future stroke risk. These interventions help prevent the recurrence of TIAs and strokes.
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