A 65-year-old patient with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma presents with bone pain and fatigue. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

Start the patient on a high-calcium diet to strengthen bones.

Encourage the patient to increase physical activity to build bone strength.

Advise the patient to limit fluid intake to prevent kidney damage.

Administer prescribed analgesics and educate the patient about pain management strategies.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason:

Starting the patient on a high-calcium diet is not the most appropriate initial intervention for multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma often leads to hypercalcemia, a condition where calcium levels in the blood are abnormally high due to bone breakdown. Increasing calcium intake can exacerbate this condition, leading to further complications such as kidney stones and impaired kidney function. Therefore, this choice is not suitable for managing the patient’s immediate symptoms.

Choice B Reason:

Encouraging the patient to increase physical activity to build bone strength is beneficial in the long term but not the most appropriate initial intervention. While weight-bearing exercises can help strengthen bones, they should be introduced gradually and under medical supervision to avoid fractures and other injuries. The immediate priority is to manage the patient’s pain and fatigue effectively.

Choice C Reason:

Advising the patient to limit fluid intake to prevent kidney damage is not appropriate. In fact, adequate hydration is crucial for patients with multiple myeloma to help flush out toxins and prevent kidney damage. Limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration and worsen kidney function, which is already at risk due to the disease.

Choice D Reason:

Administering prescribed analgesics and educating the patient about pain management strategies is the most appropriate initial intervention. Pain management is a critical aspect of care for multiple myeloma patients, as bone pain is a common and debilitating symptom. Effective pain management improves the patient’s quality of life and allows them to participate in other therapeutic activities. Education on pain management strategies, including the use of medications, physical therapy, and complementary therapies, empowers the patient to manage their symptoms effectively.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Administering intravenous fluids is not the most appropriate initial action for managing hypopituitarism. While IV fluids may be necessary in cases of acute adrenal crisis or severe dehydration, they do not address the underlying hormone deficiencies caused by hypopituitarism. The primary treatment focuses on replacing the deficient hormones to restore normal physiological functions.

Choice B Reason:

Performing a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove pituitary tumors. While this may be necessary if a tumor is causing hypopituitarism, it is not the initial action for managing the condition. The first step is to stabilize the patient with hormone replacement therapy before considering surgical interventions.

Choice C Reason:

Initiating hormone replacement therapy is the most appropriate initial action for managing hypopituitarism. This condition results in the deficiency of one or more pituitary hormones, and replacing these hormones is crucial to restore normal body functions. Hormone replacement therapy may include cortisol, thyroid hormone, sex hormones, and growth hormone, depending on which hormones are deficient.

Choice D Reason:

Recommending dietary modifications alone is not sufficient to manage hypopituitarism. While a balanced diet can support overall health, it does not address the specific hormone deficiencies associated with this condition. Hormone replacement therapy is essential for managing hypopituitarism effectively.

A. Administer propranolol intravenously. B. Administer dextrose 50% intravenously. C. Administer levothyroxine orally. D. Administer insulin to control hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Administering propranolol intravenously is the most appropriate initial intervention for managing a thyroid storm. Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia. Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, helps control these symptoms by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Additionally, propranolol inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, the more active form of thyroid hormone, thereby reducing the overall thyroid hormone activity. This makes it a critical first step in stabilizing the patient.

Choice B Reason:

Administering dextrose 50% intravenously is not the most appropriate initial intervention for thyroid storm. Dextrose 50% is typically used to treat severe hypoglycemia by rapidly increasing blood glucose levels. While maintaining adequate glucose levels is important, it does not address the primary issue of excessive thyroid hormone activity in thyroid storm.

Choice C Reason:

Administering levothyroxine orally is inappropriate in the context of thyroid storm. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of T4 used to treat hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Administering it in a thyroid storm would exacerbate the condition by increasing the levels of thyroid hormone in the body.

Choice D Reason:

Administering insulin to control hyperglycemia is not the primary intervention for thyroid storm. While hyperglycemia can occur in thyroid storm due to increased metabolic activity, the immediate priority is to control the excessive thyroid hormone activity. Insulin administration would be secondary to stabilizing the patient’s thyroid function.

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A 65-year-old patient with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma presents with bone pain and fatigue. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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