A 75-year-old male patient who recently started playing Tennis at the local adult care center is complaining of elbow pain associated with extension and flexion range of movement. The nurse knows the likely cause of this patient discomfort is due to:
Lateral epicondylitis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Gout
Medial epicondylitis
The Correct Answer is A
A. Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as "tennis elbow," is an overuse injury characterized by pain and tenderness on the outer part of the elbow (lateral epicondyle). It results from repeated stress and
strain on the forearm muscles and tendons, often due to activities involving repetitive arm motions such as tennis. The pain typically worsens with activities involving gripping, extending, or lifting.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory disease that typically affects joints symmetrically, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. It usually involves joints like the hands, wrists, and knees rather than the elbows alone. RA symptoms are generally more diffuse and persistent, rather than specifically linked to recent physical activity and localized pain associated with movement.
C. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints. It often presents with sudden, severe pain, redness, and swelling, typically affecting the big toe but can also affect other joints. Gout attacks usually occur at night and are often very acute and localized. It is less likely to be associated with the type of pain described (pain during extension and flexion) and recent physical activity.
D. Medial epicondylitis, also known as "golfer’s elbow," is similar to lateral epicondylitis but affects the inner part of the elbow (medial epicondyle). It is more commonly associated with activities that involve gripping and wrist flexion rather than the generalized extension and flexion pain described.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract and is particularly useful in evaluating neurological function in infants and adults with neurological conditions. However, it is not specifically related to testing for meningeal irritation.
B. Positioning the client prone (lying on their stomach) is not typically used when testing for meningeal irritation. The tests for meningeal irritation, such as the Brudzinski sign and Kernig sign, are performed with the client in a supine (lying on their back) position to accurately assess reactions to neck flexion and leg movements.
C. Before performing tests for meningeal irritation, such as neck flexion, it is important to ensure that the client does not have an injury to the cervical spine. If there is a possibility of cervical spine injury, performing neck flexion could exacerbate the injury. Ensuring that there is no cervical spine injury helps to avoid causing harm and ensures a safe examination.
D. While fever and chills can be associated with infections that may cause meningeal irritation (such as meningitis), checking for these symptoms is not the first step in assessing meningeal irritation itself.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. 3- This is the lowest possible score on the GCS and reflects no eye opening, no verbal response, and no motor response to stimuli. Score of 4-6: The patient might exhibit some responses, but these responses are still severely impaired. For example, the patient might open their eyes to pain but not respond verbally or move purposefully.
B. A GCS score in the range of 13 to 15 reflects a higher level of consciousness.
C. A GCS score of 0 is not a valid score on the scale.
D. A GCS score in the range of 9 to 12 reflects moderate impairment of consciousness.
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