A client at 33 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. Assessment reveals the following:
- Onset of slight vaginal bleeding at 29 weeks with spontaneous cessation
- Recent onset of bright red vaginal bleeding, more than with previous episode
- No uterine contractions at present
- Fetal heart rate within normal range
- Uterus soft and nontender
Based on the assessment findings, which condition would the nurse likely suspect?
Polyhydramnios
Placenta previa
Placental abruption
Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
The Correct Answer is B
A. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive amount of amniotic fluid and typically presents with maternal discomfort, dyspnea, and possibly preterm labor, but not with vaginal bleeding as a primary symptom.
B. Placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis based on the assessment findings. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, a soft, nontender uterus, no contractions, and a normal fetal heart rate. The bleeding may start spontaneously and often recurs. This fits the client's clinical picture precisely.
C. Placental abruption usually involves painful vaginal bleeding, a firm or tender uterus, and may be associated with uterine contractions or abnormal fetal heart rate patterns. The absence of pain and uterine tenderness in this case makes placental abruption less likely.
D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy would not be expected at 33 weeks’ gestation. Ectopic pregnancies typically present in the first trimester and are accompanied by severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of hypovolemic shock if ruptured.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Difficulty in arousing suggests central nervous system depression, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. This is not a therapeutic effect and requires immediate assessment and possible discontinuation of the medication.
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ indicates normal neuromuscular function, which is consistent with therapeutic levels of magnesium sulfate. Loss of deep tendon reflexes is often the first sign of magnesium toxicity, so their presence at a normal level is reassuring.
C. Urinary output of 20 mL per hour is below the expected minimum (typically 30 mL/hour) and may suggest impaired renal function, which increases the risk of magnesium accumulation and toxicity.
D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute is lower than normal and may indicate respiratory depression, a serious sign of magnesium toxicity. A rate below 12 breaths/minute is concerning and not consistent with therapeutic dosing.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Jaundice is not typically a primary concern in the case of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Jaundice is more associated with liver dysfunction, not hemorrhage or the acute events following an ectopic pregnancy rupture.
B. Depression is an emotional response that could occur after a traumatic event like an ectopic pregnancy, but it is not the priority in an acute situation where physical signs of a life-threatening condition like hemorrhage need immediate attention.
C. Edema may be present in a variety of conditions but is not as urgent or immediately life-threatening as hemorrhage in the case of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
D. Hemorrhage is the priority concern in a suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy can lead to significant internal bleeding, which can cause hypovolemic shock and be life-threatening. Immediate attention to monitoring for signs of hemorrhage (such as hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness, and abdominal pain) is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
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