A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease is experiencing anemia. A nurse recognizes that this type of anemia is primarily due to:
Iron deficiency
Impaired erythropoietin production
Hemolysis of red blood cells
Vitamin B12 deficiency
The Correct Answer is B
A) This choice is incorrect because iron deficiency is one of the causes of anemia, but in chronic kidney disease, impaired erythropoietin production is the primary reason.
B) This choice is correct. Anemia in chronic kidney disease is primarily caused by decreased production of erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
C) This choice is incorrect because hemolysis of red blood cells is not the main cause of anemia in chronic kidney disease.
D) This choice is incorrect because vitamin B12 deficiency is not typically associated with anemia in chronic kidney disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) This choice is correct. Taking the iron supplement with meals may reduce gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and stomach upset, which are common with iron supplementation.
B) This choice is incorrect because taking iron supplements with meals may reduce iron absorption due to interference with other dietary components.
C) This choice is incorrect because taking the supplement with meals does not directly improve its effectiveness in treating anemia.
D) This choice is incorrect because interactions with other medications are not specifically related to the timing of iron supplementation with meals.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is characterized by an increased destruction of red blood cells, which would typically result in a high reticulocyte count.
B) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by a low level of iron, which leads to decreased hemoglobin production but does not necessarily affect reticulocyte count.
C) This choice is correct. Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of red blood cells, leading to a low reticulocyte count.
D) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which affects red blood cell maturation but does not directly influence reticulocyte count.
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