A client with anemia is undergoing diagnostic evaluation. The nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be ordered to assess the body's iron stores?
Serum ferritin levels
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
White blood cell count (WBC)
The Correct Answer is A
A) This choice is correct. Serum ferritin levels are used to assess the body's iron stores. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body, and low levels of serum ferritin indicate iron deficiency.
B) This choice is incorrect because the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation and is not directly related to iron stores.
C) This choice is incorrect because total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) measures the amount of iron that can be bound to transferrin, a protein that transports iron in the blood, but it does not directly assess iron stores.
D) This choice is incorrect because the white blood cell count (WBC) is not directly related to iron stores or the evaluation of anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is associated with microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells, not macrocytic and normochromic cells.
B) This choice is incorrect because aplastic anemia typically presents with normocytic and normochromic red blood cells.
C) This choice is incorrect because sickle cell anemia does not cause macrocytic and normochromic red blood cells.
D) This choice is correct. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by macrocytic (large) and normochromic (normal color) red blood cells, which are the result of impaired DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. This condition is often caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.
Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because while antibiotics may be necessary if there is an infection, they are not the priority intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
B) This choice is incorrect because blood transfusions may be needed if there is severe anemia or complications, but they are not the priority intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
C) This choice is correct. Initiating oxygen therapy is a priority in managing a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia. Providing supplemental oxygen can help improve tissue oxygenation and reduce the severity of the crisis.
D) This choice is incorrect because although encouraging fluid intake is important in managing sickle cell anemia, it is not the priority intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
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