A client is suspected of having acromegaly. What definitive diagnostic testing is the most reliable for confirming acromegaly?
Bone radiographs.
Glucose tolerance test in combination with a Growth hormone measurement.
Growth hormone levels.
A serum glucose level.
The Correct Answer is B
Glucose tolerance test in combination with a Growth hormone measurement. Acromegaly is a condition in which there is an excess of growth hormone (GH) production by the anterior pituitary gland, resulting in abnormal growth of bones and tissues in the body. The definitive diagnostic test for acromegaly involves a glucose tolerance test combined with a measurement of GH levels. During the test, the client will be given a dose of glucose, and the GH levels will be measured before and after the glucose is given. In acromegaly, the GH levels remain elevated even after glucose administration.
Choice A, bone radiographs, may show the enlarged bones associated with acromegaly, but it is not the definitive diagnostic test for the condition.
Choice C, growth hormone levels, is not specific enough for diagnosing acromegaly, as elevated GH levels can occur in other conditions as well.
Choice D, a serum glucose level, is not specific for acromegaly, as the glucose level may be normal in clients with the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Change in bowel habits. Change in bowel habits, such as diarrhea, constipation, or a change in stool consistency, is a common early symptom of colon cancer. The nurse should advise clients over age 50 to report any changes in bowel habits to their primary care provider for early intervention.
Choice B is incorrect because abdominal cramping is a common symptom of irritable bowel syndrome and not necessarily an early symptom of colon cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because daily bowel movements are considered normal for some individuals and are not necessarily indicative of colon cancer.
Choice D is incorrect because excess gas is not an early symptom of colon cancer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
"I am at lower risk for developing cervical warts." This is an incorrect statement because the Gardasil vaccine does not protect against genital warts caused by HPV types other than types 6 and 11. The vaccine protects against HPV types 16 and 18, which cause most cases of cervical cancer.
B: This option is incomplete and does not provide any information for the nurse to determine if further teaching is needed.
C: This statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the purpose of the Gardasil vaccine.
D: This statement is incorrect because the Gardasil vaccine does not prevent HPV infection from occurring.
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