A client who experiences memory loss is diagnosed with Wernicke encephalopathy caused by alcohol addiction. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Individual addiction counseling.
Initiate disulfiram teaching.
Thiamine administration.
Nutrition referral.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: Individual addiction counseling may be beneficial for the client but does not address the immediate physiological issue of Wernicke encephalopathy. Thiamine replacement is the priority.
Choice B rationale: Initiating disulfiram teaching is not relevant to the management of Wernicke encephalopathy. Disulfiram is used for alcohol aversion therapy, not thiamine deficiency.
Choice C rationale: Thiamine administration is the most critical intervention for Wernicke encephalopathy caused by alcohol addiction. Thiamine deficiency is a key factor in the development of this condition.
Choice D rationale: Nutrition referral may be important for the client's overall well being, but it is not the priority when the client is experiencing Wernicke encephalopathy. Immediate thiamine replacement is essential.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic and may contribute to electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the most concerning medication in this situation. Choice B rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), and the combination of an MAOI with certain foods or medications containing tyramine can lead
to a hypertensive crisis. The client's elevated blood pressure is of concern, and the nurse should notify the healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat hypertension. While it may contribute to blood pressure control, it is not the most concerning medication in this scenario.
Choice D rationale: Aspirin, at a dose of 81 milligrams, is often used for cardiovascular prophylaxis and is not the most concerning medication in this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Documenting the finding on the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is appropriate. The AIMS is a standardized tool used to assess and document abnormal movements associated with antipsychotic medications, such as tardive dyskinesia.
Choice B rationale: Assisting the client in recognizing her manifestations of anxiety is unrelated to the observed foot tapping and does not address the potential side effects of antipsychotic medication.
Choice C rationale: Preparing to initiate seizure precautions for the client's safety is not indicated based on the observed foot tapping. Seizure precautions are not typically associated with antipsychotic medication side effects.
Choice D rationale: Advising the client that she has developed tolerance to the medication is speculative and not supported by the information provided. The observed foot tapping may be indicative of extrapyramidal side effects rather than tolerance.
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