A client with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is receiving oral contraceptives as part of her treatment plan. When discussing this treatment with the client, the nurse would discuss which rationale for this therapy?

Restore menstrual regularity

Induce ovulation

Improve insulin uptake

Alleviate hirsutism

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Oral contraceptives are often used in the treatment of PCOS to restore menstrual regularity. They do this by regulating the hormonal imbalances that cause the irregular periods seen in PCOS678910.
Choice B rationale
While oral contraceptives can indirectly lead to ovulation in some women with PCOS by regulating their menstrual cycles, they are not typically used to directly induce ovulation. Other medications, such as clomiphene or letrozole, are more commonly used for this purpose.

Choice C rationale
While insulin resistance is a common feature of PCOS, oral contraceptives are not typically used to improve insulin uptake. Other medications, such as metformin, are more commonly used for this purpose.
Choice D rationale
While oral contraceptives can help alleviate hirsutism (excessive hair growth) in women with PCOS by reducing levels of circulating androgens, this is typically considered a secondary benefit rather than the primary rationale for their use.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Kernicterus is a rare type of brain damage that occurs in a newborn with severe jaundice. It happens when a substance in the blood, bilirubin, builds up to very high levels and spreads into the brain tissues. This condition can cause athetoid cerebral palsy and hearing loss. Kernicterus also causes problems with vision and teeth and sometimes can cause intellectual disabilities. However, the symptoms provided do not align with this condition.
Choice B rationale
A severe cardiac anomaly could cause heart failure and respiratory distress, but it would not explain the positive Coomb’s test, high bilirubin levels, severe anemia, jaundice, and generalized edema.
Choice C rationale
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a common problem in premature babies. It causes babies to need extra oxygen and help with breathing. RDS occurs most often in babies born before the 28th week of pregnancy and can be a problem for babies born before 37 weeks of pregnancy. It’s caused by a lack of a slippery substance called surfactant, which helps the lungs inflate with air and keeps them from collapsing. However, the symptoms provided do not align with this condition.
Choice D rationale
Hydrops fetalis is a severe, life-threatening problem of severe edema (swelling) in the fetus and newborn. It is also called hydrops. There are two types of hydrops fetalis: immune and nonimmune. Immune hydrops fetalis is a complication of a severe form of Rh incompatibility, which can be prevented. Nonimmune hydrops fetalis occurs as a result of other diseases, such as infections, heart or lung defects, liver disease, or genetic disorders, which aligns with the symptoms provided.

A. Prepare for a vaginal delivery:. B. Administer antiviral medication. C. Prepare for a cesarean delivery. D. Discharge the patient:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A (Prepare for a vaginal delivery) is incorrect. Vaginal delivery is generally not recommended for women with active genital herpes lesions present during labor due to the high risk of transmitting the virus to the newborn. This risk is especially high when the mother experiences a primary infection (first outbreak) during the third trimester or has visible lesions at the time of delivery.
Choice B (Administer antiviral medication) is partially correct. While antiviral medications can be helpful in managing and potentially shortening outbreaks, they alone are not enough to prevent transmission during delivery. Antiviral medication can be used in combination with cesarean delivery to further reduce the risk of transmission.
Choice C (Prepare for a cesarean delivery) is correct. A cesarean delivery is the preferred method of delivery for women with active genital herpes lesions present during labor because it significantly reduces the risk of the virus being transmitted to the newborn. This risk can be as high as 50% during vaginal delivery with active lesions, while the risk with cesarean delivery is significantly lower, typically around 1% or less.
Choice D (Discharge the patient) is incorrect. Discharging a patient in active labor with active genital herpes lesions is not a safe or appropriate course of action. The patient needs to be carefully monitored and managed in a healthcare setting to minimize the risk of transmission to the newborn and ensure the safety of both mother and baby.

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A client with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is receiving oral contraceptives as part of her treatment plan. When discussing this treatment with the client, the nurse would discuss which rationale for this therapy?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor who has a history of genital herpes. The patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What action should the nurse take in anticipating the plan of care for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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