A drug that lowers blood pressure is called a(n):

Sedative

Intermediate-acting

Vasodilator

Vasoconstrictor

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Sedatives induce calm, not lower blood pressure directly. Vasodilators target BP reduction specifically. This choice errors per nursing pharmacology standards. It’s universally distinct as unrelated to BP management, lacking the required mechanism.

Choice B reason: Intermediate-acting defines duration, not BP-lowering action. Vasodilators reduce pressure effectively. This choice misaligns with nursing pharmacology definitions. It’s universally distinct, missing the functional role specified in the question.

Choice C reason: Vasodilators, like nitroglycerin, widen vessels, lowering BP efficiently. This matches nursing pharmacology standards precisely. It’s universally recognized, distinctly applied in practice for hypertension or angina management effectively.

Choice D reason: Vasoconstrictors raise BP, opposite of lowering it. Vasodilators fit the description accurately. This choice errors per nursing pharmacology principles. It’s universally distinct, contradicting the question’s intent entirely.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Lorazepam treats anxiety, not schizophrenia’s hallucinations or delusions. Antipsychotics are key, per nursing standards. This is universally distinct, errors in targeting schizophrenia symptoms.

Choice B reason: Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, manages schizophrenia’s psychotic symptoms effectively. This fits, per nursing pharmacology. It’s universally used, distinctly critical for hallucination control in practice.

Choice C reason: Clozapine, an antipsychotic, treats resistant schizophrenia with monitoring. This applies, per nursing standards. It’s universally recognized, distinctly effective for severe cases of the disorder.

Choice D reason: Sertraline addresses depression, not schizophrenia’s core symptoms. Antipsychotics are needed, per nursing pharmacology. This errors universally, distinctly unrelated to schizophrenia treatment.

A. Headache B. Diarrhea C. Acid indigestion D. Nausea

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Headaches aren’t omeprazole’s target; it reduces acid indigestion. This misaligns, per nursing pharmacology. It’s universally distinct, errors in assessing PPI efficacy.

Choice B reason: Diarrhea isn’t primary for omeprazole; acid relief is key. This errors, per nursing standards. It’s universally distinct, missing the drug’s main purpose.

Choice C reason: Omeprazole, a PPI, relieves acid indigestion by reducing stomach acid. This confirms efficacy, per nursing pharmacology. It’s universally applied, distinctly effective.

Choice D reason: Nausea isn’t omeprazole’s core target; acid indigestion is. This misidentifies, per nursing standards. It’s universally distinct, errors in efficacy evaluation.

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A drug that lowers blood pressure is called a(n):

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following drugs is used for schizophrenia? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has been taking omeprazole for the last 4 weeks. The nurse determines that the medication is effective when the client reports relief from which of the following symptoms?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which of the following is a drug that produces vasodilation, improves cardiac output, and lowers blood pressure?

In what area is an "ophthalmic use only" medication administered?

Contraindications to taking aspirin include:

Which class of pulmonary medications suppresses coughing?

If a suppository becomes soft, which action should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who is febrile. The nurse knows that the client needs an antipyretic medication. The nurse should check in which area of the MAR for this order?

When using a medicine dropper to administer a medication:

Anti-psychotics (major tranquilizers) are used for: