A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the Emergency Department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His blood pressure is 170/102 mm Hg, pulse rate is 110 beats/minute, and blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dL. Which prescription should the nurse administer?
Haloperidol.
Lorazepam.
Diphenyhydramine.
Thiamine.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Haloperidol is an antipsychotic that may be used for agitation or hallucinations, but it is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Administering haloperidol without addressing withdrawal may not be effective and could lead to further complications.
B) Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is the preferred medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including agitation, anxiety, and hallucinations. It helps reduce the risk of severe withdrawal symptoms and seizures while providing sedative effects. Given the client’s symptoms of feeling bugs crawling on his body, which may indicate tactile hallucinations due to withdrawal, lorazepam would be the most appropriate choice.
C) Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can be used for allergic reactions or as a sedative, but it is not effective for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
D) Thiamine is important to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy in clients with a history of alcohol dependency, especially if there are signs of confusion or neurological deficits. However, it does not address the immediate symptoms of withdrawal the client is experiencing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Asking the client why she is so anxious might seem like a valid approach to understand her feelings; however, at this moment, she may not be able to articulate her anxiety effectively. Instead of exploring the reasons for her anxiety right away, it's more important to provide immediate support.
B) Administering a PRN sedative can provide temporary relief for severe anxiety, but it should not be the first line of intervention during the admission process. Pharmacological intervention is important, but establishing a therapeutic relationship and using non-pharmacological approaches can be equally or more effective in the long term.
C) Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills is a valuable intervention, but it may not be appropriate to initiate this process immediately during the admission phase when the client is experiencing acute anxiety. The client needs first to feel safe and stabilized.
D) Remaining calm and using a matter-of-fact approach is the most important intervention during the admission process. This approach helps create a safe environment and reassures the client. By modeling calmness, the nurse can help reduce the client’s anxiety levels and foster a sense of security, allowing for better engagement and assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
(A) Explains answers to open-ended questions:While explaining answers to open-ended questions indicates cognitive engagement, it does not directly address avolition, which is characterized by a lack of motivation to perform purposeful activities.
(B) Reports enjoyment from assigned activities:Reporting enjoyment from activities is a positive sign, but it does not necessarily indicate an improvement in the motivation to initiate and complete tasks independently.
(C) Shares a personal story with peers:Sharing personal stories can demonstrate social engagement, but it does not directly reflect an improvement in avolition, which involves the motivation to perform daily tasks.
(D) Performs activities of daily living:Performing activities of daily living (ADLs) demonstrates an improvement in avolition, as it shows the client is motivated to take care of themselves and engage in necessary daily tasks. This behavior directly aligns with the goal of improving avolition.
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