A nurse assesses a client who presents to the provider's office to evaluate multiple nevi. Which finding should the nurse identify to the provider as possible sign of malignancy?

Intense pruritus is noted during assessment of the moles

Purulent drainage is coming out of the moles

A healed sore is noted upon assessment

The moles is larger than 6mm

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Intense pruritus (itching) noted during the assessment of the moles: While intense itching can be associated with skin changes and should be monitored, it is not a definitive sign of malignancy. However, it can be an early indicator that warrants further investigation, especially if accompanied by other changes in the mole.

B. Purulent drainage coming out of the moles: Purulent drainage typically indicates an infection rather than malignancy. While infections are serious and require treatment, they are not usually linked to skin cancer. This finding should prompt further assessment and appropriate wound care.

C. A healed sore noted upon assessment: A healed sore generally indicates that the area has resolved and is not immediately concerning. However, a non-healing or recurrent sore could be a sign of skin cancer and would need further evaluation by a healthcare provider.

D. The mole is larger than 6mm: A mole larger than 6mm is a significant indicator for potential malignancy, as size is one of the criteria in the ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolving) used for identifying melanoma. Larger moles warrant further examination to rule out skin cancer.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

A. Pneumococcal vaccine:

The pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for older adults to protect against Streptococcus pneumoniae, a common cause of pneumonia and other invasive diseases. Individuals over 65 years of age are at increased risk for pneumococcal infections, making this vaccine essential for their health.

B. Influenza vaccine:

The influenza vaccine is recommended annually for older adults, as they are at high risk for severe complications from influenza due to age-related immune system decline. Preventing influenza reduces the risk of secondary infections, such as pneumonia.

C. COVID-19 vaccine:

COVID-19 vaccines are strongly recommended for older adults because they are at higher risk for severe illness and complications from COVID-19. Staying up to date with booster doses further reduces the risk of hospitalization and death.

D. HIB vaccine:

The Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) vaccine is not routinely recommended for adults unless they have specific medical conditions, such as asplenia or immunodeficiencies. This vaccine is primarily targeted for infants and young children.

E. Rotavirus vaccine:

The rotavirus vaccine is not recommended for adults. It is specifically designed to prevent rotavirus gastroenteritis in infants and young children. There is no clinical indication for its use in the older adult population.

A. The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole) B. Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction C. Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole) D. Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole):
This refers to the period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, which is associated with the QT interval on the EKG, not the P wave. The P wave specifically relates to atrial depolarization, not the ventricular activity. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, and it’s not directly linked to the P wave, which represents atrial contraction.

B) Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction:

The P wave represents the depolarization (or contraction) of the atria, not the time taken for the impulse to spread to the ventricles. The time taken for the impulse to spread through the atria, across the AV node, and down to the ventricles is better represented by the PR interval, not the P wave itself.

C) Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole):
This describes the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles during systole, not the P wave. The QRS complex shows the electrical activity of the ventricles as they contract, while the P wave relates to atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular contraction.

D) Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization:
The P wave represents the passage of the electrical impulse through the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. Depolarization of the atria results in the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first part of the cardiac cycle on the EKG and reflects the electrical activity that causes atrial contraction.

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A nurse assesses a client who presents to the provider's office to evaluate multiple nevi. Which finding should the nurse identify to the provider as possible sign of malignancy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

The patient asks the nurse what the P Wave indicates on an EKG strip. The nurse informs the patient that the P Wave represents:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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