A nurse in a community clinic is caring for a client who requests assistance with smoking cessation. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following medications?
Naltrexone
Chlordiazepoxide
Clonidine
Bupropion
The Correct Answer is D
A. Naltrexone. This medication is used for opioid and alcohol use disorders. It helps reduce cravings and the pleasurable effects of those substances but is not indicated for smoking cessation.
B. Chlordiazepoxide. This is a benzodiazepine used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, such as anxiety, tremors, and agitation. It is not appropriate for treating nicotine dependence.
C. Clonidine. Although primarily used for hypertension, clonidine has been used off-label to manage symptoms of opioid or nicotine withdrawal. However, it is not the first-line agent for smoking cessation.
D. Bupropion. This is an antidepressant also approved for smoking cessation. It helps reduce nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms and is often prescribed under the brand name Zyban for this purpose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
- Deep vein syndrome: This is not a recognized condition. The intended term may have been deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a valid orthopedic complication, but the clinical findings in this scenario point more urgently toward compartment syndrome and infection.
- Osteomyelitis: The client has an open fracture with drainage from the splint, a significantly elevated WBC count (28,000/mm³), and a high fever (38.9°C / 102°F). These findings suggest the development of a bone infection (osteomyelitis), especially in the context of recent surgery and internal fixation.
- Fat embolism syndrome: While fat embolism is a risk with long bone fractures, this client is not displaying key hallmark signs such as respiratory distress, petechiae, or altered mental status. The findings are more consistent with infection and circulatory compromise.
- Compartment syndrome: The client has classic signs including cool foot, numbness, inability to move toes, absent pulses, delayed capillary refill, and increased pain. These are hallmark signs of neurovascular compromise from compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A client who has a fracture and is in balance suspension traction. This client is non-ambulatory and difficult to move quickly, so should not be evacuated first unless they are in immediate danger. They would require additional assistance and equipment to move safely.
B. A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen. This client is able to walk independently and can evacuate with minimal assistance, even while on oxygen. Evacuating ambulatory clients first helps clear the area quickly and frees up staff to assist less mobile clients.
C. A client who uses a wheelchair and is confused. While this client needs help due to confusion and mobility limitations, they are not the priority for first evacuation unless in immediate danger. They require more time and assistance.
D. A client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid. This client is non-ambulatory and may have communication challenges, which makes evacuation more complex. They would be evacuated after ambulatory clients for safety and efficiency.
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