A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Red man syndrome
Hypotension
Hypoglycemia
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Red man syndrome is typically associated with the rapid infusion of vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension can be an adverse effect of phenytoin administration, especially if the medication is administered rapidly.
Choice C rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Choice D rationale:
Bradycardia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Older adults are more likely to take multiple medications (polypharmacy), which increases the risk of drug interactions and adverse reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Multiple health problems can result in complex medication regimens and an increased risk of adverse reactions.
Choice C rationale:
The rate of drug absorption tends to decrease with age, not increase.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased percentage of body fat can lead to altered drug distribution and increased risk of drug toxicity.
Choice E rationale:
Decreased renal function affects drug excretion, increasing the risk of drug accumulation and adverse effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Having a prolapsed mitral valve is not a known risk factor for digoxin toxicity.
Choice C rationale:
Having a history of COPD is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity.
Choice D rationale:
High-ceiling diuretics (loop diuretics) can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Potassium plays a role in the effects of digoxin on the heart, and low levels can potentiate toxicity.
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