A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Red man syndrome
Hypotension
Hypoglycemia
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Red man syndrome is typically associated with the rapid infusion of vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension can be an adverse effect of phenytoin administration, especially if the medication is administered rapidly.
Choice C rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Choice D rationale:
Bradycardia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fluid retention and edema are potential adverse effects of pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione antidiabetic medication.
Choice B rationale:
Insomnia is not typically associated with pioglitazone.
Choice C rationale:
Orthostatic hypotension is not typically associated with pioglitazone.
Choice D rationale:
Tinnitus is not typically associated with pioglitazone.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR of 1.6 is slightly elevated but does not necessarily warrant an incident report.
Choice B rationale:
A WBC count of 6,000/mm3 is within a normal range and would not warrant an incident report.
Choice C rationale:
A hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL is within a normal range and does not warrant an incident report.
Choice D rationale:
An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly prolonged and may indicate excessive anticoagulation from the heparin administration. This could potentially be a safety concern and would warrant an incident report for further evaluation.
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