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A nurse is assisting with the care of a 7-year-old child.

Exhibits
The nurse is reviewing the data collection findings and diagnostic results. For each data collection finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with leukemia, sickle cell anemia, or hemophilia. Each finding may support more than 1 disease process.

A.

Reported pain

B.

Bleeding

C.

Temperature

D.

Bruising

E.

WBC count

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A,C"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}

Reported pain

  • Leukemia: Possible, as bone pain can occur due to marrow involvement.
  • Sickle Cell Anemia: Yes, common due to vaso-occlusive crises.
  • Hemophilia: No, hemophilia typically causes bleeding rather than pain from blood cell abnormalities.

Bleeding

  • Leukemia: Yes, due to thrombocytopenia.
  • Sickle Cell Anemia: No, bleeding is not typical in sickle cell crises.
  • Hemophilia: Yes, hemophilia is a bleeding disorder due to a clotting factor deficiency.

Temperature

  • Leukemia: Yes, fever can indicate infection due to immunosuppression.
  • Sickle Cell Anemia: Yes, fever can be a sign of infection during crises.
  • Hemophilia: No, hemophilia does not cause fever unless there is an infection.

Bruising

  • Leukemia: Yes, thrombocytopenia can lead to easy bruising.
  • Sickle Cell Anemia: No, bruising is not typical in sickle cell crises.
  • Hemophilia: Yes, due to a clotting factor deficiency, easy bruising is common.

WBC count

  • Leukemia: Yes, often elevated due to immature or abnormal white cells.
  • Sickle Cell Anemia: No, WBC count is usually normal unless there is an infection.
  • Hemophilia: No, WBC count is typically normal in hemophilia.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.

B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.

C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.

D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Two areas of lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm: This describes stage III Hodgkin disease, where lymph node involvement occurs both above and below the diaphragm, but not necessarily in multiple organs.

B. Two or more areas on the same side of the diaphragm: This corresponds to stage II Hodgkin disease, which is limited to two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm.

C. Localized in the cervical neck area only: Stage I Hodgkin disease typically involves a single lymph node region, often the cervical nodes, without generalized or extensive spread.

D. Generalized throughout the body within multiple organs: In stage IV Hodgkin disease, the cancer has spread beyond the lymph nodes to other organs and tissues, leading to generalized lymphadenopathy and potential organ involvement.

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