A nurse is attending to an antepartum client whose lab results show a negative rubella titer.
What is the correct interpretation of this data?
The client is immune to the rubella virus.
The client needs a rubella vaccination immediately.
The client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery.
The client is not currently infected with the rubella virus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client does not have immunity to the rubella virus. Therefore, the statement that the client is immune to the rubella virus is incorrect.
Choice B rationale
While it is true that a person with a negative rubella titer needs a rubella vaccination, it is not recommended to administer the vaccine immediately during pregnancy due to the potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this context.
Choice C rationale
The correct interpretation of a negative rubella titer in an antepartum client is that the client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery. This is because rubella can cause serious complications if contracted during pregnancy, including congenital rubella syndrome in the newborn. Vaccination post-delivery will protect the client in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A negative rubella titer does not provide information about whether the client is currently infected with the rubella virus. It only indicates that the client does not have immunity to the virus. Therefore, this statement is not a correct interpretation of the data.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment is a common instruction given when a client is prescribed certain medications, such as metronidazole, due to the potential for a disulfiram-like reaction. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s symptoms of inflamed labia majora and minora and a large amount of frothy, yellow-green, malodorous discharge.
Choice B rationale
The client’s symptoms are indicative of Trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. Metronidazole is a medication commonly used to treat this infection. A single dose of 2 g orally is a typical treatment regimen.
Choice C rationale
An oatmeal sitz bath can help soothe irritated skin and reduce inflammation, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Recommending the client’s partner receive treatment is important in cases of sexually transmitted infections to prevent reinfection. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s immediate need for treatment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Anticonvulsants. Anticonvulsants can interfere with the effectiveness of a combined oral contraceptive (COC)10111213. These medications can increase the metabolism of COCs, thereby reducing their effectiveness and potentially leading to contraceptive failure.
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