A nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporins should the nurse expect to administer via the intravenous (IV) route to treat this infection?
Cefepime
Isoniazid
Acyclovir
Metoprolol
The Correct Answer is A
A. Correct: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that is highly effective against gram-negative bacteria and can penetrate the blood-brain barrier to treat meningitis and other CNS infections.
B. Incorrect: Isoniazid is used for tuberculosis, not for gram-negative bacterial infections.
C. Incorrect: Acyclovir is an antiviral, not an antibiotic.
D. Incorrect: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and cardiac conditions, not for infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Correct: Metronidazole is an antibiotic used to treat anaerobic bacterial infections and protozoal infections.
B. Correct: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for bacterial infections, including UTIs and respiratory infections.
C. Incorrect: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and cardiac conditions, not infections.
D. Incorrect: Acyclovir is an antiviral, not an antibiotic, and is used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster infections.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Incorrect: Administering a concentrated solution can increase the risk of phlebitis and irritation. IV antibiotics are usually diluted before administration.
B. Incorrect: Choosing a small peripheral vein is not ideal for IV antibiotics, as they may cause irritation and phlebitis. A larger vein should be selected.
C. Correct: Most IV antibiotics, including those for cystitis, should be infused over 30-60 minutes to minimize the risk of adverse reactions.
D. Incorrect: Infusing through primary IV tubing is not always appropriate, as some antibiotics are incompatible with primary IV fluids. A separate IV line or secondary tubing is recommended.
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