A nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporins should the nurse expect to administer via the intravenous (IV) route to treat this infection?
Cefepime
Isoniazid
Acyclovir
Metoprolol
The Correct Answer is A
A. Correct: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that is highly effective against gram-negative bacteria and can penetrate the blood-brain barrier to treat meningitis and other CNS infections.
B. Incorrect: Isoniazid is used for tuberculosis, not for gram-negative bacterial infections.
C. Incorrect: Acyclovir is an antiviral, not an antibiotic.
D. Incorrect: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and cardiac conditions, not for infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Correct: Pruritus (itching) may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction.
B. Correct: Paresthesia (numbness/tingling) is a sign of neurotoxicity, a known side effect of aminoglycosides like gentamicin.
C. Incorrect: Drowsiness is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin.
D. Incorrect: Reflex tachycardia is not typically associated with gentamicin.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Incorrect – Blood creatinine: Measures kidney function but does not diagnose UTIs or identify the causative organism.
B. Incorrect – Blood culture: Used to detect bacteria in the bloodstream (e.g., sepsis) but does not identify a UTI-causing pathogen.
C. Correct – Urine culture and sensitivity: This test identifies the specific bacteria causing the UTI and determines which antibiotics will be most effective for treatment.
D. Incorrect – Complete Blood Count (CBC): Can show elevated WBCs, indicating infection, but does not determine the pathogen.
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