A nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporins should the nurse expect to administer via the intravenous (IV) route to treat this infection?

Cefepime

Isoniazid

Acyclovir

Metoprolol

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Correct: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that is highly effective against gram-negative bacteria and can penetrate the blood-brain barrier to treat meningitis and other CNS infections.

B. Incorrect: Isoniazid is used for tuberculosis, not for gram-negative bacterial infections.

C. Incorrect: Acyclovir is an antiviral, not an antibiotic.

D. Incorrect: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and cardiac conditions, not for infections.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Incorrect – Blood creatinine: Measures kidney function but does not diagnose UTIs or identify the causative organism.

B. Incorrect – Blood culture: Used to detect bacteria in the bloodstream (e.g., sepsis) but does not identify a UTI-causing pathogen.

C. Correct – Urine culture and sensitivity: This test identifies the specific bacteria causing the UTI and determines which antibiotics will be most effective for treatment.

D. Incorrect – Complete Blood Count (CBC): Can show elevated WBCs, indicating infection, but does not determine the pathogen.

A. This medication blocks COX-I and COX-2 enzymes. B. This medication reduces the production of angiotensin Il by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin Il and increases levels of bradykinin. C. This medication is bactericidal antibiotic that destroys microorganisms by disrupting protein synthesis. D. This medication blocks the action of angiotensin ll. which results in vasodilation and excretion of sodium and water.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Incorrect: COX-1 and COX-2 enzyme inhibition is the mechanism of NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen), not gentamicin.

B. Incorrect: This describes the mechanism of ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril), not gentamicin.

C. Correct: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, leading to bacterial cell death.

D. Incorrect: This describes the action of angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), not gentamicin.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporins should the nurse expect to administer via the intravenous (IV) route to treat this infection?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporins should the nurse expect to administer via the intravenous (IV) route to treat this infection?

Which of the following medications are considered antibiotics to treat infections? (Select All that Apply)