A nurse is reviewing discharge medications with a client who has Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include teaching about the client's anticholinergic agent. Which of the following side effects should the nurse advise the client to report?
Drooling
Anhidrosis
Tremors
Rigidity
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Pleural cavity decompression via needle aspiration is inappropriate. Pleural cavity decompression via needle aspiration may be indicated in cases of tension pneumothorax, a potentially life-threatening condition in which air accumulates in the pleural space and compresses the lung. While it is an intervention rather than a diagnostic tool, it may be performed emergently if tension pneumothorax is suspected based on clinical findings.
Choice B Reason:
Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) is appropriate. FAST is a bedside ultrasound examination commonly used in trauma settings to rapidly assess for the presence of free fluid in the pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal spaces. It can help identify hemopericardium, hemothorax, or intra-abdominal hemorrhage, which may be indicative of thoracic injury.
Choice C Reason:
Chest x-ray is appropriate. Chest x-ray is a commonly used imaging modality for evaluating thoracic injuries. It can help visualize abnormalities such as rib fractures, pneumothorax, hemothorax, pulmonary contusions, or other traumatic injuries to the chest.
Choice D Reason:
Thoracentesis is appropriate. Thoracentesis is a procedure used to sample fluid from the pleural space for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. It may be indicated if there is a suspicion of pleural effusion or if fluid accumulation is seen on imaging studies such as chest x-ray or ultrasound.
Choice E Reason:
Ultrasound is appropriate. Ultrasound can be used to evaluate various aspects of thoracic injuries, including the presence of pneumothorax, hemothorax, or pleural effusion. It is often used as part of the FAST examination but can also be performed separately for more detailed assessment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Previous stroke is not directly associated with an increased risk of status asthmaticus. While individuals with certain medical conditions, such as neurological disorders, may have an increased risk of complications from severe asthma exacerbations, a previous stroke alone is not a recognized risk factor for status asthmaticus.
Choice B Reason:
Irritants and hypersensitivity to medications, may trigger asthma exacerbations, but they are not specific risk factors for status asthmaticus. Asthma exacerbations triggered by irritants or medications can typically be managed with appropriate treatment measures and do not necessarily lead to status asthmaticus.
Choice C Reason:
Previous intubation due to status asthmaticus episode is correct. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening asthma exacerbation that is unresponsive to standard treatment measures such as bronchodilators and corticosteroids. It is characterized by prolonged and severe bronchospasm, airway inflammation, and respiratory distress.
Choice D Reason:
Bronchial pneumonia is not a known risk factor for status asthmaticus. Bronchial pneumonia, or pneumonia affecting the bronchi and lungs, is a separate respiratory condition caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. While pneumonia can exacerbate asthma symptoms in individuals with asthma, it is not specifically associated with an increased risk of status asthmaticus.
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